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2014年1月5日星期日

SAP certification C-BOWI-30 exam targeted exercises

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Exam Code: C-BOWI-30
Exam Name: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - SAP BusinessObjects Web Intelligence XI 3.x)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 139 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-04

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NO.1 Which method can you use to change the object qualification of an object within Web
Intelligence Rich Client?
A. In the Query panel, select the qualification.
B. In the Document Properties, select the qualification.
C. In Query View, right-click and select the qualification.
D. Select the object, right-click and select the qualification.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which BusinessObjects Enterprise tool supports Offline Mode logins?
A. InfoView
B. Java Panel
C. Interactive Panel
D. Web Intelligence Rich Client
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which two are benefits of creating queries from existing queries? (Choose two.)
A. Improved query security
B. Accurate duplication of query parameters
C. Improved performance of query execution
D. Reduced creation time for complex reports
Answer: B,D

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NO.4 Which two search criteria are valid when using Delegated List of Values? (Choose two.)
A. a*
B. *a
C. a%
D. %a
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 You are creating a report to summarize the number of cars sold by region. Which object
should you use to aggregate the number of cars sold?
A. Sum
B. Detail
C. Measure
D. Dimension
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which two properties can you set in the hyperlink dialog box when you create a hyperlink to a
document?
(Choose two.)
A. Refresh on open
B. Color and font style for the link
C. Drill level for the target document
D. Link to a specific area in the document
Answer: A,D

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NO.7 Which operator should you use to control the output context of a calculation that is relevant
to the different environment levels within your document?
A. In
B. Out
C. ForAll
D. ForEach
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which three statements about the If() function are correct? (Choose three.)
A. Values within the function must be in quotes.
B. The function can be used to create a variable.
C. The function can contain an aggregate function.
D. Then and Else keywords can be used within the function instead of the semicolon.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.9 Which four Report Elements can you select from the Templates tab of Web Intelligence?
(Choose four.)
A. Data
B. Report
C. Tables
D. Charts
E. Free-standing cells
Answer: B,C,D,E

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NO.10 Which two are benefits of using breaks? (Choose two.)
A. Creates a navigation map
B. Makes the table block easier to read
C. Splits the block into smaller table blocks
D. Enables the use of subtotals in one block
Answer: B,D

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Exam Code: C_BOSUP_90
Exam Name: SAP (SAP Certified Support Associate - Incident Management with SAP BusinessObjects)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-04

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NO.1 What type of reports can be produced with SAP EarlyWatch Alert?
A. Reports exclusively with graphics
B. Reports with animations
C. Reports with or without graphics
D. Reports exclusively without graphics
Answer: C

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NO.2 How can you find the Root Cause Analysis within SAP Solution Manager?
A. Use the appropriate work center transaction code.
B. Fill in the search box with keyword Root Cause Analysis.
C. Open a new application with default settings.
D. Use the left side menu.
Answer: A

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NO.3 If you want to add an SAP or non-SAP system to your landscape, which transaction do you need to
run?
A. SOLMAN_WORKCENTER
B. MSY_SETUP
C. SMSY_SETUP
D. SMSY
Answer: D

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NO.4 What is Product Support Hierarchy in SAP environment? (Choose two)
A. It is an instrument in organization and reporting within Product Support.
B. It defines the maintenance pricing level.
C. It is a view on the Application Component Hierarchy.
D. It is part of the Service Level Agreement.
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 What can the processor use in the Service Desk for message processing? (Choose two)
A. CRM_DNO_MONITOR transaction within SAP GUI
B. Transaction INCMAN
C. Business Process Monitoring Work Center
D. Incident Management Work Center
Answer: A,D

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NO.6 What is the recommended way to progress a message that is difficult to clarify?
A. Escalate the message immediately to a more senior support consultant.
B. Ask the client to provide screenshots and request information point by point.
C. Change the message status to Customer Action and tell the client that you cannot do much until more
information is provided.
D. Force the client to close the message and open a new one that is clearer.
Answer: B

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NO.7 What characterizes On the Job Enablement sessions?
A. They are workshops coordinated by the Partner Services Adviser (PSA).
B. They are open workshops.
C. They are not available to Channel partners.
D. They are chargeable add-ons.
Answer: A

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NO.8 The customer has an error that can be reproduced on their system.
How do you proceed to investigate this issue?
A. The customer is no longer entitled to support since they have caused a fault in the system.
B. Ask the customer to use a different system since this installation is experiencing issues.
C. Ask the customer to document the workflow step by step so that you can attempt to reproduce the
issue on your internal system.
D. The customer's system has the fault therefore you only need to use their system for further
investigation and testing.
Answer: C

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NO.9 What does Mission-Critical Support within SAP Enterprise Support include? (Choose two)
A. Ramp-up support
B. Robust Service Level Agreements (SLA)
C. 7 x 24 root cause analysis
D. SAP system backup
Answer: B,C

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NO.10 What is the Software Developer Network (SDN)?
A. The Software Developer Network (SDN) is a portal containing information about code strategy for third
party products.
B. The Software Developer Network (SDN) is a portal containing robust and complete information about
the underlying code of the SAP Product suite.
C. The Software Developer Network (SDN) is a portal containing robust and complete collection of
content and collaboration dedicated to SAP technology.
D. The Software Developer Network (SDN) is a tool that is available only to the SAP developer team to
brainstorm solutions for code level issues.
Answer: C

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NO.11 What is the characteristic of a system when defined as a subset of the installation in SAP systems.?
(Choose two)
A. A system corresponds to production, test AND development environment.
B. A system is identified using a system ID.
C. One system can be a child to multiple installations.
D. A system corresponds to either production, test OR development environment.
Answer: B,D

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NO.12 What is SAP EarlyWatch Check?
A. It is a fully automatically generated report.
B. It is a document that customers follow to check their platform.
C. It is a service delivered onsite.
D. It is a service delivered remotely.
Answer: D

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NO.13 What does priority in incident management mean?
A. It is an attribute of the customer's system.
B. It is an attribute that characterizes the urgency of an issue.
C. It is an attribute of the Service Desk.
D. It defines the importance of the customer for SAP.
Answer: B

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NO.14 As an SAP partner you have implemented SAP Solution Manager.
Which of the following statements reflects the requirements with regards to SAP Solution Manager
installation on the customer site?
A. Customers do not require their own SAP Solution Manager installation.
B. Customers require their own installation of SAP Solution Manager.
C. Customers and partner need to have SAP Solution Manager clustered.
D. Customers need to install SAP Solution Manager and the partner needs to connect to it.
Answer: A

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NO.15 You receive a customer message where several issues are reported.
What will be your next step?
A. Ask the customer to create one message per issue.
B. Ask your colleagues for processing this message.
C. Solve all issues in the message, because it is beneficial for customers to report several issues in one
message.
D. Start message processing without contacting the customer.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: C_TERP10_65
Exam Name: SAP (SAP Certified - Associate Business Foundation & Integration with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP5)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 121 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-04

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NO.1 The subareas of People Integration in NetWeaver include (choose all that apply):
A. Integration broker
B. Collaboration
C. Portal infrastructure
D. Multi-channel access
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.2 Which of the following are Account Assignment categories for consumable materials? (Choose
all that apply)
A. COGS
B. Cost center
C. Project
D. Profit Center
E. Asset
F. Sales order
Answer: B,C,D,E,F

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NO.3 Enterprise Services Architecture (ESA) enables business innovation by (choose all that apply):
A. Leveraging existing IT assets
B. Reducing total cost of ownership
C. Increasing time to implementation
D. Maximizing agility
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.4 Material master records must be maintained for consumable materials. True/False)
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.5 In material planning, the MRP views and the Warehouse Management views must be created.
(True/False)
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.6 The basis functions in SAP are provided by (choose the correct answer):
A. SAP XI
B. SAP EP
C. SAP Web AS
D. SAP BI
Answer: C

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NO.7 Goods receipt into stock in quality inspection can be preplanned in which of the following.
(Choose all that apply)
A. In the Material master
B. On the GR
C. On the PO
D. On the Vendor Info record
Answer: A,C

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NO.8 MySAP Business Suite includes? (Choose all that apply):
A. MySAP ERP
B. MySCM
C. MyCRM
D. Netweaver
E. MySAP SRM
Answer: A,B,C,D,E

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NO.9 Which of the following are item categories for a BOM? (Choose all that apply)
A. Stock item
B. Class item
C. Variable-size item
D. Inventory item
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.10 Which of the following are available in LIS? (Choose all that apply)
A. SIS
B. PURCHIS
C. TIS
D. PMIS
E. INVCO
Answer: A,B,C,D,E

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NO.11 What of the following determines the views available when creating a material master?
(Choose the correct answer)
A. Info type
B. Item category
C. Material type
D. Movement type
Answer: C

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NO.12 A purchasing group (choose all that apply):
A. Is assigned to a purchasing organization
B. Represent a individual or group of buyers
C. Are responsible for certain purchasing activities
D. Are assigned in the material master data
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.13 The information integration component of NetWeaver include which of the following (pick
one):
A. SAP EP
B. SAP BI
C. SAP XI
D. Microsoft.Net
E. SAP PLM
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which of the following describe data and transactions in the SAP system? (Choose all that
apply)
A. A document is created for each transaction carried out in the system
B. Transaction codes determine the relevant master data
C. Master data ensure the redundancy of data in the system
D. Applicable organizational elements must be assigned for each transaction
Answer: A,D

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NO.15 A GR is used for goods received from which of the following scenarios: (Choose all that apply)
A. External procurement from a vendor
B. Stock transfer
C. Transfer posting
D. From a production order
Answer: A,D

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Exam Code: C_TFIN52_65
Exam Name: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - Financial Accounting with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP5)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-04

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NO.1 What do you define when you configure a dunning procedure?
A. Dunning levels and the language of the dunning note
B. Dunning levels and account determination to post dunning interest
C. Dunning charges for each dunning level and customers to be dunned
D. Dunning levels and dunning charges for each dunning level
Answer: D

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NO.2 What are the prerequisites for setting up cross-company cost accounting? (Choose two)
A. The same chart of accounts is used for all company codes.
B. The same fiscal year is used for all company codes.
C. The same variant for open periods is used for all company codes.
D. The same currency is used for all company codes.
Answer: A,B

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NO.3 You want to use external number assignment for specific document types.
What is the special feature of external number assignment?
A. The numbers can be alphanumeric.
B. The number ranges can overlap.
C. The number ranges can be used across all company codes.
D. The system issues the numbers automatically.
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is the maximum number of line items of an FI document?
A. Unlimited
B. 999
C. 99
D. 9999
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following lists can be printed to help you edit a dunning proposal? (Choose two)
A. Condensed master data
B. Blocked accounts
C. Blocked line items
D. Sales statistics
Answer: B,C

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NO.6 In a payment run, the data entered for a payment method in the document may differ from the master
data.
How is this resolved by the system?
A. Document data overrides master data.
B. The payment run stops and the system issues an error message.
C. The payment run temporarily stops, and the system prompts you to correct the data. After you have
corrected the data, the payment run continues.
D. Master data overrides document data.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following objects can you post to via the cash journal? (Choose two)
A. Asset master
B. Accrual Engine
C. Customer
D. One-time customer
E. Material master
Answer: C,D

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NO.8 What does the posting key control.? (Choose three)
A. Account type
B. Document type
C. Field status
D. Debit/credit indicator
E. Number range
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.9 If a vendor is also a customer, it is possible to clear both roles against each other.
Which settings are necessary to implement this? (Choose two)
A. The "Clearing with Vendor" field must be selected in the customer account, and the corresponding field
must be selected in the vendor account.
B. The vendor and the customer must be assigned to the same group account.
C. The vendor number must be entered in the customer account or the customer number must be entered
in the vendor account.
D. The payment program must be set up to allow debit checks for vendors and credit checks for
customers.
Answer: A,C

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NO.10 Your customer runs an SAP ERP system with New General Ledger Accounting activated.
What do you need to do for Profit Center updates to be part of the general ledger?
A. Activate transfer prices in Profit Center Accounting.
B. Set up the same group currency for all company codes and profit centers.
C. Deactivate document splitting for profit centers.
D. Assign the Profit Center Update scenario to the ledger.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: C_TSCM52_64
Exam Name: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - Procurement with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP4)
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Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-04

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NO.1 Which field attribute is given the highest priority in the field selection control?
A. Optional field
B. Required entry field
C. Suppress
D. Display
Answer: C

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NO.2 Before deliveries arrive from certain vendors, you want to be informed of the delivery date and quantity.
To do this, you use a confirmation control key.
Which of the following settings can you define in a confirmation control key?
A. Only the confirmed quantity can be posted when the goods are received.
B. Confirmations must be transmitted electronically.
C. The goods receipt can be posted no earlier than the confirmed delivery date.
D. The full confirmed quantity must be entered in one posting in the system.
Answer: A

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NO.3 What can you define for a movement type in Customizing? (Choose two.)
A. The transactions in which a movement type can be used
B. The reversal movement types for a movement type
C. The quantity and value updates for postings with a movement type
D. The number range for material documents that are generated when postings are made with a
movement type
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 Which of the following elements belong to warehouse stock available for MRP in net requirement
calculation? (Choose three.)
A. Warehouse stock
B. On-order stock
C. Reorder point
D. Non-valuated goods receipt blocked stock
E. Fixed purchase requisitions
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.5 For a material without a material master record, a source of supply is to be found when a purchase
requisition is created.
You request 10 pallets of copier paper belonging to material group 4711.
Which of the following sources of supply is proposed by the system?
A. Value contract with item category W (material group) for articles of material group 4711
B. Value contract for material 4711
C. SRM central contract with item category M (material unknown) for 100 tons of copier paper of material
group 4711
D. Quantity contract for over 500 pallets of copier paper for a stock material that belongs to material group
4711
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which assignment can be made for the organizational object "purchasing organization".?
A. A purchasing organization can be assigned to multiple company codes
B. A purchasing organization can be assigned to multiple controlling areas
C. A purchasing organization can be assigned to multiple plants
D. Multiple purchasing groups can be assigned to a purchasing organization
Answer: C

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NO.7 From which stock type can goods issues to cost centers be posted?
A. Non-valuated blocked stock
B. Valuated blocked stock
C. Quality inspection stock
D. Unrestricted-use stock
Answer: D

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NO.8 Your company manages stock of various advertising articles on a quantity and value basis. In the future,
you want to analyze the value of these advertising articles.
Unfortunately, the articles have been created with different material types, material groups, valuation
classes, and in different number range intervals.
For this reason, you want to change the assignments.
Which of the following changes are possible, even if stock exists for the articles?
A. You create a new material group and then change the material group of the advertising articles to the
new material group.
B. You create a new material type and then change the material type of the advertising articles to the new
material type.
C. You create a new valuation class and then change the valuation class of the advertising articles to the
new valuation class.
D. You create a new number range interval and then change the material numbers of the advertising
articles to a number in the new number range interval.
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of the following is a prerequisite for transfer postings between two materials ("material to
material")?
A. The materials being transferred must have the same valuation class.
B. The materials being transferred must have the same material type.
C. The materials being transferred must have the same material group.
D. The materials being transferred must have the same base unit of measure.
Answer: D

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NO.10 What is mandatory in a purchase order for a non-valuated material?
A. Set the indicator for goods receipt.
B. Select an account assignment category and assign an account assignment object.
C. Set the indicator for non-valuated goods receipts.
D. Set the indicator for invoice receipt.
Answer: B

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NO.11 You procure a material using the "Consignment" process. You want to ensure that purchase requisitions
with the "Consignment" item category are generated automatically for requirements in requirements
planning.
Which of the following settings allows you to do this?
(Choose two.)
A. Enter "Consignment" as the special procurement type in the material master record.
B. Create a consignment info record for the relevant material and enter it as a fixed source of supply in the
source list.
C. Activate the quota arrangement for the relevant material and create a quota arrangement item using
"Consignment" as the special procurement type.
D. Create a consignment info record for the relevant material and select the "Regular Vendor" indicator in
the record.
Answer: A,C

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NO.12 At what level can you set quantity and value updating on a material type?
A. Plant
B. Company code
C. Valuation area
D. Procurement type
Answer: C

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NO.13 In which of the following cases is the goods receipt always posted as non-valuated?
A. Goods receipt for initial stock entry
B. Goods receipt to the stock of material provided to vendor
C. Goods receipt for a free-of-charge delivery
D. Goods receipt to the consignment stock
Answer: D

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NO.14 You want to post a goods issue from stock in quality inspection. In which of the following cases is this
possible? (Choose two.)
A. Withdrawal for scrapping
B. Withdrawal for inspection sample
C. Withdrawal for a reservation
D. Withdrawal for a cost center
Answer: A,B

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NO.15 What does an account group determine when vendor master records are created?
(Choose three.)
A. The number range in which a vendor master record must be created for this account group
B. The default setting of the info update indicator in purchase orders for vendors in this account group
C. The field selection when a vendor master record is created for vendors in this account group
D. The interval of the number assignment (internal or external)
E. The sequence of tab pages when a vendor master record is created for vendors in this account group
Answer: A,C,D

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2013年11月28日星期四

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Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-27

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NO.1 Which data do you need to set up an accrual calculation with the percentage method? Note: There are
2 correct answers to this question.
A. Accrual settlement rules with percentage method.
B. Secondary cost element (category 31) as accrual cost element.
C. Primary cost element (category 3) as accrual cost element.
D. Accrual allocation cycle with sender receiver segments.
E. Cost center or internal order (order category 2) as credit object.
Answer: C,E

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NO.2 Which master data is required for a direct activity allocation? Note: There are 3 correct answers to this
question.
A. Activity type
B. Cost center
C. Allocation cycle
D. Activity price
E. Secondary cost element
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.3 Which of the following is the typical sequence of steps in an ASAP roadmap?
A. Business blueprint -> Project preparation -> Final preparation -> Realization -> Go-live and support
B. Project preparation -> Final preparation -> Business blueprint -> Realization -> Go-live and support
C. Project preparation -> Business blueprint -> Realization -> Final preparation -> Go-live and support
D. Project preparation -> Realization -> Business blueprint -> Final preparation -> Go-live and support
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which information is transferred when you settle an Internal Order to costing-based CO-PA?
A. Cost component split of the order cost.
B. Characteristic values of the settlement rule.
C. Variance categories of the internal order.
D. All information of the internal order master data.
Answer: B

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NO.5 What does the planner profile in cost center accounting determine?
A. The available planning layouts.
B. The required planning sequence.
C. The available planning level.
D. The available planning methods (for example, top-down, forecast).
Answer: A

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NO.6 What does the SAP Web AS provide?
A. Real-time data exchange with all SAP systems.
B. Master data harmonization cross SAP NetWeaver.
C. J2EE and ABAP in a single environment.
D. Storage of all transactional documents in one single database.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following are characteristics of Master Data? Note: There are 2 correct answers to this
question.
A. Is typically assigned to organizational levels.
B. Must be assigned on client level.
C. Is used long-term for multiple business processes.
D. Cannot be changed after creation.
E. Is a template for transactional data.
Answer: A,C

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NO.8 A company wants to prevent postings of more than 5000 EUR on cost centers by generating an error
message. What do you recommend?
A. Activating and using availability control for cost centers.
B. Creating a substitution rule in the IMG.
C. Creating a lock amount on the control tab in the cost center master data.
D. Creating a validation rule in the IMG.
Answer: D

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NO.9 A customer wants to allocate internal and external costs, based on statistical key figure values, to the
receivers. Which method do you choose?
A. Assessment
B. Overhead calculation
C. Distribution
D. Settlement
Answer: A

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NO.10 A customer wants to perform cost center planning to reflect different expectations for the future. How
can the customer create different plans in parallel?
A. Use different versions.
B. Use different costing variants.
C. Use different planning areas.
D. Use different valuation areas.
Answer: A

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NO.11 In January, you posted a headcount of 10 employees as an actual statistical key figure on a cost center.
The key figure is defined as fixed value. In July, the headcount is reduced to 8 employees for the rest of
the year. What headcount do you have to post?
A. -2 in each period July to December.
B. -2 in period July.
C. 8 in each period July to December.
D. 8 in period July.
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which planning transactions create secondary costs on the receivers?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. Plan assessment
B. Transfer of depreciations from Asset Accounting
C. Transfer of personnel cost from HR
D. Plan distribution
E. Activity input planning
Answer: A,E

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NO.13 Which of the following is a typical sequence of steps in a Purchase to Pay process?
A. Purchase requisition -> Purchase order -> Goods receipt -> Invoice verification Payment
B. Purchase requisition -> Goods issue -> Purchase verification -> Invoice receipts Payment
C. Purchase requisition -> Goods verification -> Purchase receipts -> Invoice receipts Payment
D. Purchase order -> Purchase requisition -> Goods receipt -> Invoice verification Payment
Answer: A

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NO.14 What is the name of the infrastructure that supports core business solutions in four subcomponents
including people integration, information integration, process integration, and application platform?
A. SAP NetWeaver
B. SAP Business Process Management
C. SAP Exchange Infrastructure
D. SAP Web AS
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which of the following are the usage scenarios for Solution Manager.?
Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.
A. Implementation
B. Optimization
C. Retirement
D. Operations
E. Validation
Answer: A,B,D

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Exam Code: C_TSCM52_64
Exam Name: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - Procurement with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP4)
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Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-27

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NO.1 Before deliveries arrive from certain vendors, you want to be informed of the delivery date and quantity.
To do this, you use a confirmation control key.
Which of the following settings can you define in a confirmation control key?
A. Only the confirmed quantity can be posted when the goods are received.
B. Confirmations must be transmitted electronically.
C. The goods receipt can be posted no earlier than the confirmed delivery date.
D. The full confirmed quantity must be entered in one posting in the system.
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is mandatory in a purchase order for a non-valuated material?
A. Set the indicator for goods receipt.
B. Select an account assignment category and assign an account assignment object.
C. Set the indicator for non-valuated goods receipts.
D. Set the indicator for invoice receipt.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following elements belong to warehouse stock available for MRP in net requirement
calculation? (Choose three.)
A. Warehouse stock
B. On-order stock
C. Reorder point
D. Non-valuated goods receipt blocked stock
E. Fixed purchase requisitions
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.4 Your company manages stock of various advertising articles on a quantity and value basis. In the future,
you want to analyze the value of these advertising articles.
Unfortunately, the articles have been created with different material types, material groups, valuation
classes, and in different number range intervals.
For this reason, you want to change the assignments.
Which of the following changes are possible, even if stock exists for the articles?
A. You create a new material group and then change the material group of the advertising articles to the
new material group.
B. You create a new material type and then change the material type of the advertising articles to the new
material type.
C. You create a new valuation class and then change the valuation class of the advertising articles to the
new valuation class.
D. You create a new number range interval and then change the material numbers of the advertising
articles to a number in the new number range interval.
Answer: A

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NO.5 You procure a material using the "Consignment" process. You want to ensure that purchase requisitions
with the "Consignment" item category are generated automatically for requirements in requirements
planning.
Which of the following settings allows you to do this?
(Choose two.)
A. Enter "Consignment" as the special procurement type in the material master record.
B. Create a consignment info record for the relevant material and enter it as a fixed source of supply in the
source list.
C. Activate the quota arrangement for the relevant material and create a quota arrangement item using
"Consignment" as the special procurement type.
D. Create a consignment info record for the relevant material and select the "Regular Vendor" indicator in
the record.
Answer: A,C

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NO.6 You want to post a goods issue from stock in quality inspection. In which of the following cases is this
possible? (Choose two.)
A. Withdrawal for scrapping
B. Withdrawal for inspection sample
C. Withdrawal for a reservation
D. Withdrawal for a cost center
Answer: A,B

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NO.7 From which stock type can goods issues to cost centers be posted?
A. Non-valuated blocked stock
B. Valuated blocked stock
C. Quality inspection stock
D. Unrestricted-use stock
Answer: D

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NO.8 What can you define for a movement type in Customizing? (Choose two.)
A. The transactions in which a movement type can be used
B. The reversal movement types for a movement type
C. The quantity and value updates for postings with a movement type
D. The number range for material documents that are generated when postings are made with a
movement type
Answer: A,B

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NO.9 Which of the following is a prerequisite for transfer postings between two materials ("material to
material")?
A. The materials being transferred must have the same valuation class.
B. The materials being transferred must have the same material type.
C. The materials being transferred must have the same material group.
D. The materials being transferred must have the same base unit of measure.
Answer: D

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NO.10 For a material without a material master record, a source of supply is to be found when a purchase
requisition is created.
You request 10 pallets of copier paper belonging to material group 4711.
Which of the following sources of supply is proposed by the system?
A. Value contract with item category W (material group) for articles of material group 4711
B. Value contract for material 4711
C. SRM central contract with item category M (material unknown) for 100 tons of copier paper of material
group 4711
D. Quantity contract for over 500 pallets of copier paper for a stock material that belongs to material group
4711
Answer: A

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NO.11 What does an account group determine when vendor master records are created?
(Choose three.)
A. The number range in which a vendor master record must be created for this account group
B. The default setting of the info update indicator in purchase orders for vendors in this account group
C. The field selection when a vendor master record is created for vendors in this account group
D. The interval of the number assignment (internal or external)
E. The sequence of tab pages when a vendor master record is created for vendors in this account group
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.12 Which field attribute is given the highest priority in the field selection control?
A. Optional field
B. Required entry field
C. Suppress
D. Display
Answer: C

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NO.13 In which of the following cases is the goods receipt always posted as non-valuated?
A. Goods receipt for initial stock entry
B. Goods receipt to the stock of material provided to vendor
C. Goods receipt for a free-of-charge delivery
D. Goods receipt to the consignment stock
Answer: D

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NO.14 At what level can you set quantity and value updating on a material type?
A. Plant
B. Company code
C. Valuation area
D. Procurement type
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which assignment can be made for the organizational object "purchasing organization".?
A. A purchasing organization can be assigned to multiple company codes
B. A purchasing organization can be assigned to multiple controlling areas
C. A purchasing organization can be assigned to multiple plants
D. Multiple purchasing groups can be assigned to a purchasing organization
Answer: C

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Last Update: 2013-11-27

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NO.1 Your customer wants to automate off-cycle payroll tasks such as printing forms, execution of
posting run, and printing checks.
Which tool is best suited for this?
A. Payroll control record
B. Off-Cycle Workbench
C. HR Process Workbench
D. Interface Toolbox
Answer: C

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NO.2 A customer continues to pay some employees for a period of time after they are terminated.
These
employees should also be processed in retro calculation runs.
What do you recommend?
A. Terminate the employee with the future date up to which you want to continue regular
processing and use the payroll driver to force any retro runs.
B. Terminate the employee and enter the date up to which you want to continue processing payroll
in the Accounted to field on IT0003.
C. Terminate the employee and enter the date up to which you want to continue processing payroll
in the Run Payroll up to field on IT0003.
D. Terminate the employee with the future date up to which you want to continue payroll
processing so they are included in regular and retro runs.
Answer: C

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NO.3 A customer asks you to configure an average calculation rule for hourly workers. The rule
should
determine an average daily overtime rate derived from all overtime earned during the previous
three months. Any retroactive changes in pay should be included.
What do you have to include in the configuration of the rule? (Choose three.)
A. Final processing rule
B. Cumulation rule
C. Time wage type selection rule
D. Adjustment rule
E. Processing class 01 rule
Answer: A,B,D

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5. A customer is concerned that WPBP splits on the IT input table may lead to overpayments.
What explanations do you provide to address their concerns? (Choose two.)
A. WPBP splits occur when an employee enters or leaves the company during a pay period. They
are used to prorate their pay accordingly.
B. WPBP splits occur when an employee's organizational assignment changes. They are used to
allocate personnel costs to the correct cost center.
C. WPBP splits occur when an employee's address changes during a pay period. They are used
to allocate benefit deductions to the correct provider.
D. WPBP splits occur when an employee's bank information changes during a pay period. They
are used to allocate payments to the correct account.
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 A customer wants to use the same wage type for a special payment such as hazardous pay and
have the rate vary by personnel area.
What do you have to configure?
A. Modif W and the table V_T539J (Base wage type valuation)
B. Modif 4 and the table V_T510S (Time wage type selection)
C. Modif 2 and the table V_T510J (Constant valuations)
D. Modif A and the table V_T554C (Absence valuation)
Answer: C

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NO.1 One of your customers needs to know the BEx Broadcaster options for sending static
snap-shots
of data. What would you tell them? (Choose three)
A. For workbooks, send as E-Mail as a Zip File.
B. For a web template, send as 'Independent HTML File'.
C. For a web template, send as 'HTML with Separate MIME Files' as a Zip File.
D. For a web template, send as an 'Online Link'.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.2 Valid BI source objects for the BEx Broadcaster include: (Choose three)
A. Queries
B. iViews
C. Workbooks
D. Value Sets E. Reports created with the Report Designer
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.3 A BEx Analyzer workbook can be based on which of the following? (Choose three)
A. A Query
B. A Query view created with the BEx Analyzer
C. An InfoProvider
D. A BEx Report created with the Report Designer
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.4 Organizations that are 'data rich, but information poor' might gain from the business
knowledge
discovered through data mining. Which of the following are true regarding data mining? (Choose
three)
A. Clustering is a data mining method.
B. Data mining is an analytical approach that looks for hidden information patterns in large
databases.
C. Data mining can easily analyze historical information, but is unable to predict future trends.
D. Regression analysis is a data mining method.
E. ETL (Extraction, Transformation and Loading) is a data mining method.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.5 The APD (Analysis Process Designer) in SAP NetWeaver BI provides a mechanism for reading
data
from a source and then transferring the analytical results back out to a data target. In this
scenario, which of the following are possible data targets of the APD? (Choose two)
A. Standard DataStore Objects
B. VirtualProviders
C. Meta Data Repository
D. DataStore Objects for direct update
E. InfoObject master data tables
Answer: D,E

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NO.6 The design mode of the BEx Analyzer allows you to: (Choose two)
A. Add your own navigation controls such as drop down lists and check boxes.
B. Add in your own broadcast scheduling options so users receive the workbook by email and in
their SAP NetWeaver Portal role.
C. Insert results from other data providers into the same workbook.
D. Access a toolbox of predefined macros that can automate common tasks.
Answer: A,C

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NO.7 Your client is interested in the various formats used to distribute BI information. Which of
the
following formats are available? (Choose three)
A. Precalculated XML file with separate MIME files.
B. Precalculated BEx Analyzer Workbooks.
C. Precalculated MHTML file.
D. Online links to current data.
E. Precalculated DOC file with separate MIME files.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.8 If two queries are inserted into the same worksheet in a workbook, which of the following is
a potential conflict?
A. The results for one query could affect the results for the other query.
B. The first query on the worksheet is the only query accessible by the user.
C. If the user drills down in the first query, the query result could possibly extend into the area
occupied by the second query.
D. The security settings of the first query would override the security settings of the second
query.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Valid BEx Broadcaster distribution types include: (Choose two)
A. Archive object
B. Email
C. CSV file
D. Printer
Answer: B,D

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NO.10 Which of the following statements best describe the benefit of using data bursting as a
broadcasting distribution type? Data Bursting: (Choose two)
A. Allows you to broadcast report results to large numbers of non-SAP users via email.
B. Provides an easy way to improve the performance of all web-based BEx reports.
C. Provides an effective way to manage security across all BEx reports.
D. Allows you to broadcast user-specific results based on master data.
Answer: A,D

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