2013年12月31日星期二

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Exam Code: 000-N09
Exam Name: IBM (IBM LotusLive Technical Sales Mastery Test v2 )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 What are the default settings for newly created Communities.?
A. All new Communities will be created with the Files widget to upload and share files with the community.
B. All new Communities will have customized templates to create sub-communities.
C. All new Communities will be created with nested community features.
D. Communities do not have default settings because it is blank and owner must create the settings.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Bob wants to share a file with Alice. Bob and Alice both have LotusLive accounts but work for different
companies. Furthermore, the file is confidential and Bob company requires all uploaded files into
LotusLive to be encrypted. What is Bob s best option?
A. Download a decrypted copy of the file in LotusLive and email it to Alice.
B. Share the file publicly in LotusLive and email Alice the link.
C. Get connected with Alice via LotusLive so she can see the files.
D. Share the file directly in LotusLive with Alice making sure she is listed as a reader.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Cameron wants to give his customers access to his LotusLive environment. What is required to add
users to his LotusLive organization?
A. To add user, Cameron must have at least User Account Assistant privileges.
B. To add users, Cameron must have administrator privileges.
C. To add users, Cameron must have at least manager rights to his community.
D. To add users, Cameron must have creator s role which is assigned when account is created.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 00M-650
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Rational Enterprise Modernization Sales Mastery Test v1 )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 36 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 IBM Rational recommends an incremental approach to enterprise modernization. What aspects of IT
are most important when a client is building a modernization plan.?
A. Knowledge, determination, and planning.
B. Assets, people, teams and infrastructure.
C. Program and project management and validation.
D. Integration of business process management procedures.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Jazz automatically collects data from development artifacts and activities and turns it into useful
information.
What kind of information can be delivered to project managers?
A. Strategic information on how requirements meet business objectives.
B. Actual project expenses vs. budget tracking.
C. Complex compliance requirements.
D. Objective measurements of the projects progress and application quality.
Answer: D

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NO.3 How can compilers help clients optimize their infrastructure and defer capital expenditures? Newer
compilers
A. can leverage the latest processor enhancements
B. integrate more effectively with security offerings to exploit use of the web
C. lower cost of deployment
D. enable integration of globally developed assets
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 00M-238
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Commerce Solutions Selling/Order Mgmt Sales Mastery Test v1 )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 37 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 IBM Sterling CPQ has customers in many different verticals. Which combination of verticals reflects
most accurately, the CPQ customers.?
A. Manufacturing, High Tech, Communication/Media/Entertainment, LifeScience, and Education.
B. Communication/Media/Entertainment/ LifeScience, High Tech, Pharma, Consumer.
C. LifeScience, Manufacturing, Construction, Communication/Media/Entertainment/ Consumer.
D. Manufacturing, High Tech, Communication/Media/Entertainment/ LifeScience, Consumer.
Answer: D

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NO.2 IBM Sterling Configurator can be integrated with other applications. What specific characteristic makes
it easy to accomplish such integrations?
A. Configurator engine design is based on open standards such as XML and JAV
B. Configurator engine has great performance and scalability characteristics.
C. Configurator engine is a stateless engine.
D. All of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.3 How do today s customers interact with a brand?
A. Customers expect the brand to provide a seamless and consistent cross-channel experience.
B. Customers expect a dedicated and independent system for each channel for more focused service.
C. Customers are increasing using only a single channel for all their interactions.
D. None of the above.
Answer: A

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NO.4 The ability to have multiple quotes assigned to a single opportunity enables sales people to
________________.
A. find the optimal price point of a quote
B. handle approvals of quotes
C. make quote negotiations more effective since alternative quotes can be presented to a prospect
D. Both A and B.
Answer: C

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NO.5 IBM Sterling OM provides a single order repository that enables a user to modify, update or track all
orders real-time for what type of channel?
A. Field Sales
B. Retail Store
C. Call Center
D. Any combination of channels.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-N03
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Commerce Solutions Selling Technical Mastery Test v1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 25 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 Gift Center can provide benefits to retailers. Which one of the following statement is NOT a benefit of
using Gift Center?
A. Improve customer satisfaction.
B. Increase customer reach.
C. Increase sales volume.
D. Give more discounts to customers.
Answer: D

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NO.2 What is NOT a feature of WebSphere Commerce contracts.?
A. Customer organization modeling.
B. Custom Catalog
C. Product pricing
D. Business Policies
Answer: A

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NO.3 How do you check if Gift Center is already enabled at a WebSphere Commerce installation?
A. Run versionInfo.sh
B. Check database table SITE
C. Check properties/version folder
D. Check xml/config folder
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-317
Exam Name: IBM (IBM WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment V8.0, Core Administration)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 61 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 A system administrator needs to submit a wsadmin job to change the configuration of an enterprise
application within a flexible management environment. What should the administrator do? Connect to:
A. Node Agent
B. Administrative Agent
C. Job Manager
D. Work Manager
E. Deployment Manager
Answer: C,E

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NO.2 A system administrator has successfully installed the WebSphere Application Server Network
Deployment core product. The administrator then attempts to start server1, and it fails to start. On initial
inspection, the administrator finds that the profiles directory is empty. What should the administrator do
next?
A. Start the node agent for server1.
B. Inspect the SystemOut.log file of server1.
C. Run the Installation Verification Tool (IVT).
D. Run the WebSphere Customization Toolbox.
Answer: D

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NO.3 A remote host machine has been registered to a job manager as a target, and the IBM Installation
Manager has been installed on the host. How can an administrator install WebSphere Application Server
Network Deployment V8.0 on the remote host?
A. Use the job manager to schedule a "Manage offerings" job.
B. Schedule a "Distribute file" job to push the installation response file to the remote host.
C. Schedule a "Start application" job to launch the IBM Installation Manager on the remote host.
D. Use the Installation Factory to create a Centralized Installation Manager (CIM) repository on the
remote host.
Answer: A

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NO.4 A system administrator needs to install the IBM Installation Manager (IIM) using non-graphical
interactive mode. To perform this operation, what should the administrator run?
A. imcl -c
B. imcl -s
C. imcl -install
D. imcl -updateAll
Answer: A

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NO.5 A system administrator has completed a WebSphere installation using the IBM Installation Manager.
Which tool, using the default settings, can the administrator use to generate an HTML file verifying the
version of WebSphere installed? Execute the:
A. postinstall command.
B. versionInfo command.
C. genVersionReport command.
D. Installation Verification Tool (IVT).
Answer: C

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NO.6 Web clients are seeing error messages when they try to access a Java EE application. In order to
isolate the system component that may be causing the problem, the administrator decides to verify the
request flow from a web browser. In what order should the components be examined?
A. Web server, embedded HTTP server, web services engine
B. Web server, HTTP plug-in, embedded HTTP server, web container
C. Embedded HTTP server, web services engine, web container
D. Load balancer, web server, name server, embedded HTTP server, web container
Answer: B

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NO.7 A system administrator configures the intelligent runtime provisioning feature included with WebSphere
Application Server Network Deployment V8.0. The default WebSphere settings are in place. At what level
will the administrator enable runtime provisioning?
A. node agent
B. web container
C. application server
D. deployment manager
Answer: C

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NO.8 A system administrator needs to create a new standalone WebSphere application server profile on
<machine_a>. All previous WebSphere installations have been on <machine_a>.
What should the administrator do to prevent a port conflict with this new server.?
A. Execute the pmt script from a remote machine.
B. Execute the Profile Management Tool from <machine_a>
C. Edit the server.xml file on <machine_a> to change ports.
D. Look for running processes on <machine_a> using port 9080
Answer: B

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NO.9 A system administrator is creating a new WebSphere cell consisting of three dedicated
machines: ?web server ?deployment manager ?application server node To provide process level failover,
the administrator should create a cluster with:
A. no scaling
B. vertical scaling
C. horizontal scaling
D. horizontal and vertical scaling
Answer: B

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NO.10 A system administrator needs to install the IBM Installation Manager for WebSphere Application Server
Network Deployment V8.0 using a non-root account. What step must the administrator take so that the
installation can be managed by two different non-root user accounts? Install the IBM Installation Manager:
A. in group mode.
B. in non-administrator mode.
C. using the configurator administrator role.
D. using a primary and secondary account.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-220
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Sterling Connect:Direct, Administration)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 A Sterling Connect:Direct for Windows and UNIX user wants to get a list of processes that completed
successfully. The command begins with: select statistics ccode=(=,0) recids=... ; Which Record Id filters
will complete this command?
A. CTRC
B. PRED
C. PSED
D. PSTR
Answer: B

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NO.2 A Sterling Connect:Direct for UNIX administrator needs to submit a process directly into the Execution
queue in order to bypass the Wait queue. Which command will accomplish this task?
A. submit
B. submit hold=no
C. submit retain=no
D. submit maxdelay=0
Answer: D

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NO.3 An administrator installed Sterling Connect:Direct for Windows node on a new server. The
administrator also defined new Functional Authorities for another user. When the user logs onto the
server and opens Connect:Direct Requester for the first time, the node is not displayed. The Nodes view
is empty. What should the user do in order to attach to the new node?
A. Add the new node to the netmap.
B. Contact the administrator and ask to verify access.
C. Logon to the server with the administrator's account.
D. Select Node>Connection Settings>Insert Node and enter the local node information.
Answer: D

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NO.4 An administrator wants to stop Sterling Connect:Direct for UNIX but Connect:Direct needs to run all
executing processes to completion before shutting down. Which command should be submitted?
A. stop;
B. stop step;
C. stop force;
D. stop immediate;
Answer: A

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NO.5 In Sterling Connect:Direct for UNIX, an administrator is setting up multiple nodes in a load balancing
environment on a cluster file system (not an NFS). The administrator needs to specify a shared area
where the multiple nodes can place return code files and copy checkpoint information, so that the various
nodes are aware of activity. What parameter is used to specify this?
A. ndm.path
B. comm.info
C. quiesce.resume
D. snode.work.path
Answer: D

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NO.6 A Sterling Connect:Direct for Windows environment is installed to allow for high availability, by
assigning a virtual IP address to the cluster to which each node is then bound to. Which local node
parameter is used to specify this virtual IP address?
A. node.check
B. tcp.host.port
C. outgoing.address
D. Alternate Comminfo
Answer: C

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NO.7 In Sterling Connect:Direct for Windows, which parameter is required when configuring a remote node
using Advanced Program to Program Communication (APPC)?
A. Partner LU Name
B. Alternate Comminfo
C. Host Name/IP Address
D. UDT communication path name
Answer: A

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NO.8 An administrator installed Sterling Connect:Direct for UNIX in the directory /opt/connect and defined
the local node name as CDUNIX01. The administrator wants to start Connect:Direct for UNIX Command
Line Interface (CLI) client to submit a process. Which environment variable must the administrator set to
get access to this client?
A. PATH=/opt/connect/ndm/bin/direct
B. PATH=/opt/connect/ndm/bin/ndmcli
C. NDMAPICFG=/opt/connect/ndm/cfg/cliapi/ndmapi.cfg
D. NDMAPICFG=/opt/connect/ndm/cfg/CDUNIX01/initparm.cfg
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which of the following is supported by Sterling Connect:Direct for z/OS V1 FMH flows?
A. XDR Keywords
B. Mapped DSECTS
C. ZLIB Compression
D. Cyclic redundancy check (CRC)
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which component is invoked to stop Sterling Connect:Direct for UNIX?
A. Security Exit
B. User Manager
C. Session Manager
D. Process Manager
Answer: D

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NO.11 A Sterling Connect:Direct for Windows administrator needs to verify that the latest fixes have been
applied. Which option will show the release and maintenance level of the Windows node?
A. SPAdmin
B. Admin Tool
C. Message Lookup
D. Configuration Utility
Answer: B

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NO.12 A Sterling Connect:Direct for Windows and UNIX user wants to determine the outcome of process
numbers 10 to 15. What command can retrieve this information?
A. select statistics pnumber=(10-15);
B. select statistics pnumber=(10..15);
C. select statistics pnumber=10,11,12,13,14,15;
D. select statistics pnumber=(10,11,12,13,14,15);
Answer: D

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NO.13 When configuring a node in Sterling Connect:Direct for Windows, which field is found on the General
properties tab in the CD Admin Tool?
A. API IP Address
B. Local LU Name
C. Max PNode Sessions
D. Enable TCP/IP Support
Answer: C

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NO.14 A Sterling Connect:Direct for z/OS administrator navigated to the Secure+ Admin Tool: Main
Screen?shown here: Which Connect:Direct Secure+ remote node supports the STS encryption protocol?
A. SECURE.REMOTE01
B. SECURE.REMOTE02
C. SECURE.REMOTE03
D. SECURE.REMOTE04
Answer: B

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NO.15 A SNIFFER trace shows the following entries:
A NETSTAT display was performed. What is the correct connection state that a user should expect?
A. LAST ACK
B. FIN WAIT1
C. ESTABLISHED
D. The administrator would NOT expect to see a connection show up.
Answer: D

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NO.16 A user is building a process to send a compressed ZIP archive file to a remote node. What
compression setting is most efficient and provides the best performance for this type of file?
A. COMPRESS Extended
B. COMPRESS PRIMECHAR=X'20'
C. COMPRESS Extended=(CMPrlevel=9,WINdowsize=15,MEMlevel=9)
D. No compression.
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which utility can be used via command line to export and import users and netmap settings in Sterling
Connect:Direct for Windows?
A. Client Connection Utility
B. Logon Configuration Utility (LCU)
C. Connect:Direct Configuration Utility
D. Connect:Direct Command Line Interface (CLI)
Answer: C

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NO.18 In Sterling Connect:Direct for UNIX, in which path is the file ndmproc located?
A. ndm/lib/
B. ndm/bin/
C. ndm/cfg/cliapi/
D. ndm/cfg/cd_node/
Answer: B

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NO.19 A Sterling Connect:Direct for Windows and UNIX user is troubleshooting a problem for either changing,
deleting, selecting or terminating a process. Which diagnostic trace option should be used?
A. cmgr
B. pmgr
C. smgr
D. comm
Answer: B

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NO.20 One of the benefits of using Sterling Connect:Direct is that it:
A. focuses on message switching.
B. utilizes proprietary data formatting.
C. provides 24 x 365 unattended operation.
D. offers manual restart through the use of email.
Answer: C

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NO.1 What type of mechanism is a simple token value that is used to refer to a much bigger large object
(LOB)?
A. locator
B. pointer
C. address
D. reference
Answer: A

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NO.2 Given the following DDL statement: CREATE TABLE sales (item CHAR(20)); If a DBA wishes to
increase the size of the ITEM column, which SQL statement needs to be used?
A. ALTER TABLE sales ADD COLUMN item CHAR(40);
B. ALTER TABLE sales ALTER COLUMN item CHAR(40);
C. ALTER TABLE sales MODIFY COLUMN item CHAR(40);
D. ALTER TABLE sales ALTER COLUMN item SET DATA TYPE CHAR(40);
Answer: D

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NO.3 You have a business need to query DB2 10 and DB2 9 databases and you want to write an application
that can run on most platforms unchanged. Which interface would you use to achieve your goal?
A. CLI
B. XML
C. JDBC
D. RUBY
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which object is a stored procedure defined into?
A. Table
B. Schema
C. Package
D. Database
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which two activities indicate the need for a data warehouse? (Choose two.)
A. Confirm product inventory.
B. Monitor product availability.
C. Summarize sales by region.
D. Identify patterns for products sold in the last five years.
E. Associate one or more products with a purchase order.
Answer: C,D

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NO.6 When an index is created for a table, where is the metadata for that index stored?
A. In the table definition.
B. In the system catalog.
C. In the schema that the index resides in.
D. In the metadata of the table the index was created for.
Answer: B

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NO.7 If the following command is executed: CREATE DATABASE test What is the page size (in kilobytes) of
the database?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 16
D. 32
Answer: A

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NO.8 What type of large object (LOB) is used to store LOB data together with the formatted rows on data
pages, instead of in a separate LOB storage object?
A. inline
B. binary
C. internal
D. partitioned
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which DB2 object can be used to improve the execution performance of qualified SELECT statements?
A. Trigger
B. SQL Procedure
C. Sequence Object
D. Materialized Query Table
Answer: D

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NO.10 When is it appropriate to use a sequence?
A. When you want to control the order in which triggers are fired.
B. When you want to control the order in which stored procedures can be invoked.
C. When you want to automatically generate a numeric value that is not tied to any specific column or
table.
D. When you want to automatically generate a numeric value for each row that is added to a specific
table.
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which action needs to be performed in order to complete the definition of an application-period temporal
table?
A. A transaction-start-id column must be defined for the table.
B. A history table must be defined and associated with the base table.
C. A BUSINESS_TIME period must be specified in a CREATE or ALTER of the table.
D. A unique index must be created that prevents overlapping of the BUSINESS_TIME period of the table.
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which clause should be included in a ALTER TABLE statement to update a table definition with a new
column?
A. ADD COLUMN
B. ALTER COLUMN
C. APPEND COLUMN
D. RENAME COLUMN
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which DB2 object is used to provide a logical grouping of other database objects?
A. Alias
B. Index
C. Schema
D. Collection
Answer: C

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NO.14 What is the primary function of an Online Transaction Processing (OLTP) workload?
A. To combine data from multiple sources.
B. To discover hidden relationships in data.
C. To analyze large amounts of data to find patterns.
D. To make changes to a small number of records within a single transaction.
Answer: D

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NO.15 What is the purpose of the Query Tuner?
A. To automatically capture and stop rogue queries.
B. To provide recommendations and analysis for tuning a single query.
C. To provide recommendations and analysis for tuning up to 100 queries.
D. To recommend indexes and to guide DBAs through the process of creating new indexes.
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which type of temporal table can be used to store only time-sensitive data?
A. Bitemporal
B. Time-period
C. System-period
D. Application-period
Answer: D

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NO.17 What are two valid objects that can be created in DB2? (Choose two.)
A. Tree
B. Node
C. Trigger
D. Contexts
E. Sequence
Answer: C,E

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NO.18 What functionality allows users to perform a UNION operation between a DB2 table and an Oracle
view?
A. Oracle connect
B. Trusted context
C. Oracle federation
D. Distributed request
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which tool allows users to connect to a DB2 database using a wizard?
A. Control Center
B. IBM Data Studio
C. Universal Connection Expert
D. DB2 Connection Pool Manager
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which product is used to customize execution environments for the purpose of controlling system
resources so that one department or service class does not overwhelm the system?
A. pureScale
B. Workload manager
C. Data partitioning feature
D. Self-tuning memory manager
Answer: B

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Exam Name: IBM (IBM Automotive Industry Solutions Sales Mastery Test v1)
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NO.1 What is one of the five major drivers for the automotive industry.?
A. A dependent ecosystem
B. An independent ecosystem
C. A closed ecosystem
D. None of the above
Answer: C

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NO.2 What product does IBM have for the customer for planning and scheduling, order management, and
tracking and tracing?
A. ILOG
B. SPSS
C. WebSphere Application Server
D. Rational Application Developer
Answer: B

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NO.3 What does SPSS do for the customer?
A. It allows the customer to the ability to create models that understand how processes interact over time,
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B. It allows the customer to the ability to create databases that store sequential data, when used in
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C. It allows the customer to the ability to create WebSphere Portal pages that display sequential data,
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D. None of the above
Answer: C

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NO.1 To represent an entertainment collection, a modeler creates a Model Group with Models for books,
songs, movies. etc. Option Classes in each Model represent different genres and the Option Items are the
individual works of art (specific songs, movies, books, etc.). Given that the term "'artists" is applicable to
songs and movies but not to books, where should a property denoting "artists" be defined and attached?
A. Property is defined at the Model Group and attached at the Models.
B. Property is defined at the Models and attached at the Option Class.
C. Property is defined at the Model Group and attached at the Option Items.
D. Property is defined at the Option Class and attached at the Option Items.
Answer: C

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NO.2 A furniture company has a Model for a house with an option to select different types of furniture
commonly found in a house (e.g. tables, chairs etc). Each of those furniture types are modeled as Option
Classes and the available options are defined as Option Items. The prices are defined as a property on
Option Items. Multiple selections can be made in each of the furniture types and quantities can be entered
for them. Which function(s) will be needed in a rule attached at the Option Class level to determine the
average price of each of the furniture type selected?
A. sum()
B. childSum()
C. sum(), count()
D. childSum(), count()
Answer: B

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NO.3 A Model is developed per the following image:
To ensure consistency and control of priorities, which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. "Property, D" will always be equal to 5.
B. The formula cannot be attached to property as depicted in the image.
C. To ensure that the value of "Property, D" is 7 after Model execution, change the priority of formula firing
so that the formula for deriving "Property, C" is fired before the formula for "Property, D".
D. To ensure that the value of "Property, C" is calculated before the value of "Property, D", replace the
formula with two rules. Rule1 calculates "Property, C" and Rule2 calculates "Property, D". Set the priority
for Rule1 is set to 40, and the priority of Rule2 to 50.
Answer: D

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NO.4 A car manufacturer wants to display a list of available cars based on what the customer chooses for the:
What should be the rule fragment/condition written for this?
A. value(AvailableCars) not in list(CarType) [Fragment is false]
B. value(AvailableCars) not in propval(CarType) [Fragment is false]
C. propval(AvailableCars) not in list(CarType) [Fragment is false]
D. propval(AvailableCars) not in parent(CarType) [Fragment is false]
Answer: C

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NO.5 A modeler is working on a rule to determine if the customer's location is one of the 10 possible locations
where a discounted offer can be given. What type of property SHOULD be used for storing all 10 of the
locations in one property.?
A. List property
B. String property
C. Location property
D. String Array property
Answer: A

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NO.6 A modeler wants to give a discount on the price of cars, but only if the following conditions are
satisfied:
The modeler creates a rule for this and it is set to trigger on success. How will this rule condition be
defined in the Visual Modeler?
B
A. Exhibit A
B. Exhibit B
C. Exhibit C
D. Exhibit D
Answer: C

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NO.7 A modeler creates a Model for a desktop with multiple layers of Option Classes. To keep the price of the
desktop low, the modeler decided on a maximum price for each group of components and marked it at the
appropriate Option Class level with the property "maxPrice". The rules for validating that the price does
not go beyond the max set for that component or subcomponent is defined at Model and attached at the
Option Items. What function can be used in the rule to determine the "maxPrice" for each component?
A. max()
B. value()
C. parent()
D. propval()
Answer: C

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NO.8 When naming properties, a modeler avoids using names that start with an "_" (underscore). The
modeler is correct to do this, because names that start with an "_" (underscore) are which type of
properties?
A. UI Properties
B. UEV Properties
C. System Properties
D. Rule Trace Properties
Answer: C

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NO.9 A modeler is about to create an Option Class for logos for a Model of t-shirts. The modeler discovers
that there is a Model for logos and that it has been used as a sub-model in a Model for bags. Instead of
attaching the Model for logos as a sub-model to the Option Class, the modeler wants to copy the
reference for the sub-model from the Model for bags. What are the possible advantages of doing this?
A. Any properties attached to the sub-model reference are copied over and may be useful.
B. Any rules and properties attached to the sub-model reference are copied over and may be useful.
C. There is no advantage. It is same as attaching the Model for logos as a sub-model to the Option Class.
D. It is not possible to copy the sub-model reference.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Review the following Model:
The callouts (i.e. "R1", "R2", "R3, R4" and "R5") denote the rules assigned at the different levels. For the
rules assigned to the same node, assume that the rules are listed in the increasing order of priority value.
What is the sequence in which the rules will be evaluated?
A. R1, R2, R3, R4, R5
B. R1, R2, R4, R3, R5
C. R1, R2, R5, R4, R3
D. R3, R4, R2, R5, R1
Answer: D

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NO.11 A modeler needs to create a property to represent the quantity of televisions in a home where the value
needs to be used in a calculation. What type of property should be created?
A. List property
B. String property
C. Integer property
D. Number property
Answer: D

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NO.12 A Model has property values that change frequently, and these changes are communicated by an
external vendor. The modeler needs to make these changes as required. What is the MOST efficient way
of updating the Model with these frequent changes?
A. Make the changes in the database table.
B. Make the changes using the Visual Modeler.
C. Export the current Model and make changes in the Model XML. Import the changed Model.
D. Create a common Worksheet and maintain it externally in a Comma Separated Value (CSV) file.
Upload it with the new property values.
Answer: D

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NO.13 A company wants to give its customers a 10% volume discount for its Professional Services if the order
totals 100 or more hours. The $250 hourly (undiscounted) base rate for Professional Services is retained
in an Option Item under an Option Class called base rates in the model and is never displayed in the UI.
Rules will be used to set the UI: PRICE for the Professional Services Option Item displayed in the UI
based on the quantity of hours ordered and the UI: PRICE of the hidden base rate Option Item.
Review the following images which show what is presented to the user in the UI with and without a
discount.
When creating these assignment rules, which function needs to be used to retrieve the hourly base rate
for Professional Services?
A. sum
B. value
C. lookup
D. propval
Answer: D

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NO.14 A modeler has to create a rule with many fragments. In which order should the fragments be set up for
better performance?
A. The nested fragments should come first.
B. The least probable fragment should come first.
C. The sequence of the fragments do not make any difference.
D. The fragments that use custom function handlers should come first.
Answer: B

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NO.15 A major bike manufacturer sells customizable bikes online, and includes assembly and shipping. For a
bike to be completed, the user must select a frame, tires and gear systems. There are several choices
available for the user in each category, but there are some compatibility issues between certain types of
frames and the third-party gear systems that the manufacturer uses. For example, there are three sizes
the bike frames: 19" 20" and 22". There are three models of gear systems that the manufacturer offers:
6.speed, 18-speed and 24-speed. While 6-speed and 18speed fits all the frame sizes, 24-speed is a
premium exclusive model and fits only the 22". The requirement calls for compatibility to be pointed out to
the user. What is the correct way to model this product?
A. Use a rule to automatically fix compatibility issues.
B. Use a Constraint Table to manage the allowable configurations.
C. Use a list to list down the different options available for each frame.
D. Define different properties for gear system 24-speed to distinguish it from 6-speed and 18speed.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-N13
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Intelligent Operations Center Technical Mastery Test v1 )
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Total Q&A: 31 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 Which Hardware Deployment Kit should you use for basic Intelligent Operations Center Pilot program?
A. IBM System x3500 M3
B. IBM BladeCenter S
C. IBM BaldeCenter H
D. IBM zBX
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following is not a part of creating a KPI (Key Performance Indicator)?
A. Formatting data input for the KPI metrics to be provided
B. Business Monitor Configuration for Inbound Event and KPI Model
C. Defining KPI Context Structure Definition
D. Write a custom portlet for each KPI
Answer: D

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are NOT included in that deployment?
A. Root User not configured prior to installation.
B. Virtual Machine to Virtual Machine connectivity issues.
C. Feature complexity issues.
D. Database portability issues.
Answer: D

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NO.4 How many integration points are currently defined for the Intelligent Operations Center?
A. 4
B. 7
C. 11
D. 20
Answer: C

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NO.5 Standard Operating Procedures are created through a Design Tool, which is:
A. an Eclipse-based IDE for diagramming the procedure
B. a graphical authoring tool where you can connect different types of nodes and actions
C. an XML definition tool for work flow definitions
D. None of the above
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-586
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Case Manager V5.1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 132 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 A case worker would like to send an instant announcement to other case workers in the IBM Case
Manager environment. How can this be done?
A. By adding a comment to the case.
B. By using the external email system.
C. By using the IBM Sametime integrated feature.
D. By creating a case with the announcement as a property.
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is a reason to use iLog within the context of an ICM Solution?
A. To intelligently assign case workers to tasks.
B. To obtain additional Case Data from an external system.
C. To update a case property field after a step is completed.
D. To obtain a priority from a database call via a stored procedures.
Answer: A

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NO.3 There are two recommended methods used to copy a solution : Case Manager Builder and what other
tool?
A. IBM Content Engine API
B. IBM FileNet Workplace XT
C. IBM FileNet Enterprise Manager
D. IBM Case Manager Administration Client
Answer: D

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NO.4 For IBM Case Manager, where should the database for the content engine target object store and the
process engine on DB2 be located?
A. On separate databases on the same server
B. On separate databases on different servers
C. On the same database on a server with different userids
D. On the same database on a server with same userid and password
Answer: D

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NO.5 What is one reason to use IBM Forms over FileNet eForms within the context of an ICM Solution?
A. IBM Forms is more tightly integrated with ICM.
B. The ability to use JavaScript to enhance the form.
C. The ability to use multiple Digital Signature methods.
D. The ability to use EDS (Extended Data Services) within ICM.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Typically, in a production environment, you do not give users permission to create and manage spaces
and catalog entries in Business Space. What function is used to hide these features of the client user
interface?
A. Set the Business Space configuration setting com.ibm.mashups.lockeddown to true.
B. Set the Business Space configuration setting com.ibm.mashups.manageSpaces to false.
C. Use FileNet Enterprise Manager to set LDAP security on the all users who should not have access.
D. Use the IBM Case Manager Administration Client to configure the security settings for Production
groups and users.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which must be installed and configured with IBM Case Manager to enable IBM Sametime?
A. Only IBM Sametime client and Lotus Domino server
B. Only IBM Sametime proxy server and Lotus Domino server
C. Only Lotus Domino server, IBM Sametime client, and IBM Sametime proxy server
D. Only Lotus Domino server, IBM Sametime community server, and IBM Sametime proxy server
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which two components are optional add-on licenses with the IBM Case Manager core product offering?
(Choose two.)
A. IBM Forms
B. IBM Case Analyzer
C. IBM FileNet eForms
D. Content Search Services
E. WebSphere Process Server
Answer: A,E

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NO.9 Which two items are always part of a case management solution? (Choose two.)
A. Analytics
B. Content objects
C. Database lookups
D. Process fragments
E. System integrations
Answer: B,D

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NO.10 A user in the customer_interactions project area has created two solutions, Sol1 and Sol2. The user is
transferred to the credit_card_investigations project area. What happens to Sol1 and Sol2?
A. Sol1 and Sol2 are deleted.
B. Sol1 and Sol2 remain in customer_interactions project area.
C. Sol1 and Sol2 are moved to orphaned_solutions project area.
D. Sol1 and Sol2 are moved to credit_card_investigations project area.
Answer: B

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NO.11 A customer is looking for assistance in determining a backup strategy. Which statement is true
regarding backup of the ICM solution?
A. A Hot Backup can be performed if the operating system is AIX.
B. A Hot Backup cannot be performed because Business Space prevents it.
C. A Hot Backup cannot be performed because of the difficulties of ensuring in-flight transactions.
D. A Hot Backup can be performed because ICM provides additional features to permit this process.
Answer: C

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NO.12 Where can you find the following collection of data for each solution: solution status, description,
Process Engine connection definition, and Case Manager Client URL?
A. In the IBM Case Manger Builder.
B. In the Business Space configuration setting.
C. In the IBM Case Manager Solution List page.
D. In the IBM Case Manager Administration Client.
Answer: C

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NO.13 Business Analyst John Smith has a user ID and valid password configured with IBM Case Manager
but has not been assigned to a project area. Which statement is true?
A. John Smith cannot login to Case Manager Builder.
B. John Smith can only work in the default project area.
C. John Smith can login to Case Manager Builder, but cannot create a solution.
D. John Smith can login to Case Manager Builder, but cannot deploy a solution.
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which tool is used to register External Data Services (EDS) with IBM Case Manager?
A. Workplace XT
B. Filenet Enterprise Manager
C. Filenet Deployment Manager
D. IBM Case Manager Administration Client
Answer: D

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NO.15 When creating a new solution from a template, how long should the new solution name be?
A. Any length
B. Less than 58 characters
C. Less than 999 characters
D. Greater than 8 characters
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which program is prohibited to be used with IBM Case Manager as per the licensing terms?
A. Lotus Widget Factory (of IBM Mashup Center)
B. Case Manager crawler (of IBM Content Analytics)
C. Web chat client (of IBM Lotus Sametime Proxy Server)
D. Rule Execution Server (of IBM WebSphere ILOG JRules)
Answer: A

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NO.17 What utility is used to create the run time solution in a development environment?
A. Case Manager Builder
B. FileNet Enterprise Manager
C. FileNet Deployment Manager
D. Case Manager Administrator Client
Answer: A

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NO.18 There are three levels of security when configuring a business space page. There are View and Edit
access rights. What is the third security level that gives users "special permissions" for things like
assigning access rights to groups of users.
A. Owner
B. Specialist
C. Super User
D. Administrator
Answer: A

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NO.19 What tool is used to import a solution package?
A. IBM Case Manager Builder
B. IBM FileNet Process Designer
C. IBM FileNet Enterprise Manager
D. IBM Case Manager Administration Client
Answer: D

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NO.20 Within the scope of ICM databases created, which statement is true.?
A. The Process Engine database can only run on DB2.
B. The Business Space database can only run on DB2.
C. The Case Analyzer database can co-exist with the CE database.
D. The Process Engine database can co-exist with the CE database.
Answer: D

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