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Exam Code: 1Z1-050
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle Database 11g: New Features for Administrators)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 183 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-29

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NO.1 Which two are the prerequisites to enable Flashback Data Archive? (Choose two.)
A.Undo retention guarantee must be enabled.
B.Database must be running in archivelog mode.
C.Automatic undo management must be enabled.
D.The tablespace on which the Flashback Data Archive is created must be managed with Automatic
Segment Space Management (ASSM).
Answer: CD

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NO.2 What are the recommendations for Oracle Database 11g installation to make it Optimal Flexible
Architecture (OFA)-compliant? (Choose all that apply.)
A.ORACLE_BASE should be set explicitly.
B.An Oracle base should have only one Oracle home created in it.
C.Flash recovery area and data file location should be on separate disks.
D.Flash recovery area and data file location should be created under Oracle base in a non-Automatic
Storage Management (ASM) setup.
Answer: ACD

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NO.3 In which two aspects does hot patching differ from conventional patching? (Choose two.)
A.It consumes more memory compared with conventional patching.
B.It can be installed and uninstalled via OPatch unlike conventional patching.
C.It takes more time to install or uninstall compared with conventional patching.
D.It does not require down time to apply or remove unlike conventional patching.
E.It is not persistent across instance startup and shutdown unlike conventional patching.
Answer: AD

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NO.4 You opened the encryption wallet and then issued the following command:
Then you closed the wallet. Later, you issued the following command to create the EMPLOYEES table in
the SECURESPACE tablespace and you use the NO SALT option for the EMPID column.
What is the outcome?
A.It creates the table and encrypts the data in it.
B.It generates an error because the wallet is closed.
C.It creates the table but does not encrypt the data in it.
D.It generates an error because the NO SALT option cannot be used with the ENCRYPT option.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which is the source used by Automatic SQL Tuning that runs as part of the AUTOTASK framework?
A.SQL statements that are part of the AWR baseline only
B.SQL statements based on the AWR top SQL identification
C.SQL statements that are part of the available SQL Tuning Set (STS) only
D.SQL statements that are available in the cursor cache and executed by a user other than SYS
Answer: B

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NO.6 Identify two situations in which you can use Data Recovery Advisor for recovery. (Choose two.)
A.The database files are corrupted when the database is open.
B.The archived log files are missing for which backup is not available.
C.The user has dropped an important table that needs to be recovered.
D.You are not able to start up the database instance because the required database files are missing.
Answer: AD

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NO.7 You installed Oracle Database 11g and are performing a manual upgrade of the Oracle9i database.
As a part of the upgrade process, you execute the following script:
SQL>@utlu111i.sql
Which statement about the execution of this script is true?
A.It must be executed from the Oracle Database 11g environment.
B.It must be executed only after the SYSAUX tablespace has been created.
C.It must be executed from the environment of the database that is being upgraded.
D.It must be executed only after AUTOEXTEND is set to ON for all existing tablespaces.
E.It must be executed from both the Oracle Database 11g and Oracle Database 9i environments.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which two statements are true with respect to the maintenance window? (Choose two.)
A.A DBA can enable or disable an individual task in all maintenance windows.
B.A DBA cannot change the duration of the maintenance window after it is created.
C.In case of a long maintenance window, all Automated Maintenance Tasks are restarted every four
hours.
D.A DBA can control the percentage of the resource allocated to the Automated Maintenance Tasks in
each window.
Answer: AD

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NO.9 Your organization decided to upgrade the existing Oracle 10g database to Oracle 11g database in a
multiprocessor environment. At the end of the upgrade, you observe that the DBA executes the following
script:
SQL> @utlrp.sql
What is the significance of executing this script?
A.It performs parallel recompilation of only the stored PL/SQL code.
B.It performs sequential recompilation of only the stored PL/SQL code.
C.It performs parallel recompilation of any stored PL/SQL as well as Java code.
D.It performs sequential recompilation of any stored PL/SQL as well as Java code.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which dependent object will get invalidated even if it is not affected by the table redefinition?
A.views
B.triggers
C.packages
D.synonyms
Answer: B

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NO.11 You are managing the APPPROD database as a DBA. You plan to duplicate this database in the same
system with the name DUPDB.
You issued the following RMAN commands to create a duplicate database:
Which three are the prerequisites for the successful execution of the above command? (Choose three.)
A.The source database should be open.
B.The target database should be in ARCHIVELOG mode if it is open.
C.RMAN should be connected to both the instances as SYSDBA.
D.The target database backups should be copied to the source database backup directories.
E.The password file must exist for the source database and have the same SYS user password as the
target.
Answer: BCE

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NO.12 Which steps are mandatory to enable Direct NFS?
A.2 and 3
B.1 and 3
C.1 and 2
D.1, 2 and 3
Answer: B

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NO.13 Following is the list of locations in random order where oranfstab can be placed.
What is the sequence in which Direct NFS will search the locations?
A.1, 2, 3
B.3, 2, 1
C.2, 3, 1
D.1, 3, 2
Answer: C

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NO.14 You decided to use Direct NFS configuration in a non-RAC Oracle installation and created the
oranfstab file in /etc.
Which two statements are true regarding this oranfstab file? (Choose two.)
A.Its entries are specific to a single database.
B.It contains file systems that have been mounted by Direct NFS.
C.It is globally available to all Oracle 11g databases on the machine.
D.It contains file systems that have been mounted by the kernel NFS system.
Answer: CD

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NO.15 You are managing an Oracle 11g database with ASM storage, for which the COMPATIBLE initialization
parameter is set to 11.1.0. In the ASM instance, the COMPATIBLE.RDBMS attribute for the disk group is
set to 10.2 and the COMPATIBLE.ASM attribute is set to 11.1.
Which two statements are true in this scenario for the features enabled for ASM? (Choose two.)
A.The ASM-preferred mirror read feature is enabled.
B.The ASM supports variable sizes for extents of 1, 8, and 64 allocation units.
C.The ASM disk is dropped immediately from a disk group when it becomes unavailable.
D.The RDBMS always reads the primary copy of a mirrored extent of the ASM disk group.
Answer: AB

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NO.16 During the installation of Oracle Database 11g, you do not set ORACLE_BASE explicitly. You selected
the option to create a database as part of the installation. How would this environment variable setting
affect the installation?
A.The installation terminates with an error.
B.The installation proceeds with the default value without warnings and errors.
C.The installation proceeds with the default value but it would not be an OFA-compliant database.
D.The installation proceeds with the default value but a message would be generated in the alert log file.
Answer: D

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NO.17 Examine the following PL/SQL block:
Which statement describes the effect of the execution of the above PL/SQL block?
A.The plan baselines are verified with the SQL profiles.
B.All fixed plan baselines are converted into nonfixed plan baselines.
C.All the nonaccepted SQL profiles are accepted into the plan baseline.
D.The nonaccepted plans in the SQL Management Base are verified with the existing plan baselines.
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which two statements are true regarding the starting of the database instance using the following
command? (Choose two.)
SQL>STARTUP UPGRADE
A.It enables all system triggers.
B.It allows only SYSDBA connections.
C.It ensures that all job queues remain active during the upgrade process.
D.It sets system initialization parameters to specific values that are required to enable database upgrade
scripts to be run.
Answer: BD

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NO.19 Which two statements are true regarding hot patching? (Choose two.)
A.It requires relinking of the Oracle binary.
B.It does not require database instance shutdown.
C.It can detect conflicts between two online patches.
D.It is available for installing all patches on all platforms.
E.It works only in a single database instance environment.
Answer: BC

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NO.20 Which two statements about Oracle Direct Network File System (NFS) are true? (Choose two.)
A.It bypasses the OS file system cache.
B.A separate NFS interface is required for use across Linux, UNIX, and Windows platforms.
C.It uses the operating system kernel NFS layer for user tasks and network communication modules.
D.File systems need not be mounted by the kernel NFS system when being served through Direct NFS.
E.Oracle Disk Manager can manage NFS on its own, without using the operating system kernel NFS
driver.
Answer: AE

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Exam Code: 1Z0-050
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle Database 11g: New Features for Administrators)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 183 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-29

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NO.1 Which two statements about workload capture and replay operations are true? (Choose two.)
A.The clients must be created manually on the test machines to perform more realistic testing.
B.Restart the database in RESTRICTED mode before beginning workload replay to enable a clean state
for workload replay.
C.Restart the database in RESTRICTED mode before beginning workload capture to enable a clean state
for capturing the workload.
D.The application state of the capture system must be identical to the application state of the replay
system when the workload replay begins.
Correct:C D

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NO.2 You installed Oracle Database 11g and are performing a manual upgrade of the Oracle9i
database. As a part of the upgrade process, you execute the following script: SQL>@utlu111i.sql
Which statement about the execution of this script is true?
A.It must be executed from the Oracle Database 11g environment.
B.It must be executed only after the SYSAUX tablespace has been created.
C.It must be executed from the environment of the database that is being upgraded.
D.It must be executed only after AUTOEXTEND is set to ON for all existing tablespaces.
E.It must be executed from both the Oracle Database 11g and Oracle Database 9i environments.
Correct:C

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NO.3 Which statements are true regarding the concept of problems and incidents in the fault
diagnosability infrastructure for Oracle Database 11g? (Choose all that apply.)
A.The problem key is the same as the incident number.
B.Every problem has a problem key, which is a text string that describes the problem.
C.The database makes an entry into the alert log file when problems and incidents occur.
D.The database sends an incident alert to the Oracle Enterprise Manager Database Home page.
E.Only the incident metadata and dumps are stored in the Automatic Diagnostic Repository (ADR).
Correct:B C D

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NO.4 You are managing an Oracle Database 11g database with the ASM storage. The database is
having big file tablespaces. You want files to open faster and less memory to be used in the
shared pool to manage the extent maps. What configuration would you effect to achieve your
objective? (Choose all that apply.)
A.Set the ASM compatibility attribute for the ASM disk group to 11.1.0.
B.Set the RDBMS compatibility attribute for the ASM disk group to 11.1.0.
C.Set the COMPATIBLE initialization parameter for the ASM instance to 11.1.0.
D.Set the COMPATIBLE initialization parameter for the database instance to 11.1.0.
Correct:A D

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NO.5 View the Exhibit to examine the parameter values. You are planning to set the value for the
MEMORY_TARGET parameter of your database instance. What value would you assign?
A.90 MB
B.272 MB
C.362 MB
D.1440 MB
Correct:C

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NO.6 When executing a SQL workload, you choose to generate execution plans only, without
collecting execution statistics. Which two statements describe the implications of this? (Choose
two.)
A.It produces less accurate results of the comparison analysis.
B.It automatically calls the SQL Tuning Advisor for recommendations.
C.It shortens the time of execution and reduces the impact on system resources.
D.Only the changes in the execution plan, and not performance regression, are detected.
Correct:A C

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NO.7 Which two are the prerequisites to enable Flashback Data Archive? (Choose two.)
A.Undo retention guarantee must be enabled.
B.Database must be running in archivelog mode.
C.Automatic undo management must be enabled.
D.The tablespace on which the Flashback Data Archive is created must be managed with Automatic
Segment Space Management (ASSM).
Correct:C D

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NO.8 You are managing the APPPROD database as a DBA. You plan to duplicate this database in the
same system with the name DUPDB. You issued the following RMAN commands to create a
duplicate database: RMAN> CONNECT target sys/sys@APPPROD RMAN> DUPLICATE TARGET
DATABASE TO dupdb FROM ACTIVE DATABASE DB_FILE_NAME_CONVERT
'/oracle/oradata/prod/', '/scratch/oracle/oradata/dupdb/' SPILE PARAMETER_VALUE_CONVERT
'/oracle/oradata/prod/', '/scratch/oracle/oradata/dupdb/' SET SGA_MAX_SIZE = '300M' SET
SGA_TARGET = '250M' SET LOG_FILE_NAME_CONVERT '/oracle/oradata/prod/redo/',
'/scratch/oracle/oradata/dupdb/redo/'; Which three are the prerequisites for the successful
execution of the above command? (Choose three.)
A.The source database should be open.
B.The target database should be in ARCHIVELOG mode if it is open.
C.RMAN should be connected to both the instances as SYSDBA.
D.The target database backups should be copied to the source database backup directories.
E.The password file must exist for the source database and have the same SYS user password as the
target.
Correct:B C E

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NO.9 View the Exhibit. Examine the following command that is executed for the TRANSPORT table in
the SH schema: SQL> SELECT DBMS_STATS.CREATE_EXTENDED_STATS('sh', 'customers_obe',
'(country_id, cust_state_province)') FROM dual; Which statement describes the significance of
this command?
A.It collects statistics into the pending area in the data dictionary.
B.It creates a virtual hidden column in the CUSTOMERS_OBE table.
C.It collects statistics with AUTO_SAMPLE_SIZE for ESTIMATE_PERCENT.
D.It creates a histogram to hold skewed information about the data in the columns.
Correct:B

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NO.10 You want to take the backup of the USERS tablespace. It has a single data file of 900 MB.. You
have tape drives of 300 MB each. The SBT channel is configured for the RMAN. To accomplish the
backup, you issued the following RMAN command: RMAN> BACKUP SECTION SIZE 300M
TABLESPACE users; Which two statements are true regarding the execution of the above
command? (Choose two.)
A.The backup piece size will be limited to 300 MB.
B.The operation is accomplished using the default channel available.
C.The RMAN parallelizes the backup although the parallelism is not set for a channel.
D.Three channels for the tape drive must be configured by setting the parallelism to three.
Correct:A B

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NO.11 Which statement is true regarding the VALIDATE DATABASE command?
A.It checks the database for intrablock corruptions only.
B.It checks for block corruption in the valid backups of the database.
C.It checks the database for both intrablock and interblock corruptions.
D.It checks for only those corrupted blocks that are associated with data files.
Correct:A

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NO.12 Which steps are mandatory to enable Direct NFS? 1. Mount all required file systems using the
kernel NFS driver. 2. Create an oranfstab file containing the attributes for each NFS server to be
accessed using Direct NFS. 3. Replace the ODM library libodm11.so_stub with libodm11.so.
A.2 and 3
B.1 and 3
C.1 and 2
D.1, 2 and 3
Correct:B

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NO.13 USER_DATA is a nonencrypted tablespace that contains a set of tables with data. You want to
convert all existing data in the USER_DATA tablespace and the new data into the encrypted format.
Which methods would you use to achieve this? (Choose all that apply.)
A.Use Data Pump to transfer the existing data to a new encrypted tablespace.
B.Use ALTER TABLE..MOVE to transfer the existing data to a new encrypted tablespace.
C.Use CREATE TABLE AS SELECT to transfer the existing data to a new encrypted tablespace.
D.Enable row movement for each table to be encrypted and then use ALTER TABLESPACE to encrypt
the tablespace.
E.Encrypt the USER_DATA tablespace using the ALTER TABLESPACE statement so that all the data in
the tablespace is automatically encrypted.
Correct:A B C

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NO.14 Identify the two direct sources from where SQL plans can be loaded into the SQL plan baselines.
(Choose two.)
A.Cursor cache
B.Stored outline
C.SQL Tuning Set
D.Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) snapshots
Correct:A C

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NO.15 You are managing an Oracle Database 11g database. You want to take a backup on tape drives
of the USERS tablespace that has a single data file of 900 MB. You have tape drives of 300 MB
each. To accomplish the backup, you issued the following RMAN command: RMAN>BACKUP
SECTION SIZE 300M TABLESPACE users; What configuration should be effected to accomplish
faster and optimized backups by using the above command?
A.The SBT channel must be configured, with the MAXPIECESIZE set to 300 MB.
B.The SBT channel must be configured, with the parallelism setting for the SBT device set to 3.
C.The COMPATIBLE initialization parameter for the database instance must be set to at least 10.0.
D.The SBT channel must be configured, with the default parallelism setting for the SBT device set to 1.
Correct:B

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NO.16 Which statement describes the effect of table redefinition on the triggers attached to the table?
A.All triggers on the table remain valid.
B.All triggers on the table are invalidated and are automatically revalidated with the next DML execution
on the table.
C.All triggers on the table are invalidated and must be manually recompiled before the next DML
execution on the table.
D.Only triggers that are affected by the changes to the structure of the table are invalidated and
automatically revalidated with the next DML execution on the table.
Correct:B

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NO.17 Which tasks can be accomplished using the Enterprise Manager Support Workbench in Oracle
Database 11g? (Choose all that apply.)
A.Generate reports on data failure such as data file failures.
B.You can package and upload diagnostic data to Oracle Support.
C.You can track the Service Request (SR) and implement repairs.
D.You can manually run health checks to gather diagnostic data for a problem.
Correct:B C D

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NO.18 Which three statements about performance analysis by SQL Performance Analyzer are true?
(Choose three.)
A.It detects changes in SQL execution plans.
B.It produces results that can be used to create the SQL plan baseline.
C.The importance of SQL statements is based on the size of the objects accessed.
D.It generates recommendations to run SQL Tuning Advisor to tune regressed SQLs.
E.It shows only the overall impact on workload and not the net SQL impact on workload.
Correct:A B D

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NO.19 View the Exhibit exhibit1 to examine the series of SQL commands. View the Exhibit exhibit2 to
examine the plans available in the SQL plan baseline. The baseline in the first row of the Exhibit is
created when OPTIMIZER_MODE was set to FIRST_ROWS. Which statement is true if the SQL
query in exhibit1 is executed again when the value of OPTIMIZER_MODE is set to FIRST_ROWS?
A.The optimizer uses a new plan because none of the plans in the exhibit2 are fixed plans.
B.The optimizer uses the plan in the second row of the exhibit2 because it is an accepted plan.
C.The optimizer uses the plan in the first row of the exhibit2 because it is the latest generated plan.
D.The optimizer uses the plan in the first row of the exhibit2 because OPTIMIZER_MODE was set to
FIRST_ROW during its creation.
Correct:B

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NO.20 Evaluate the following block of code: BEGIN DBMS_NETWORK_ACL_ADMIN.CREATE_ACL ( acl
=> 'mycompany-com-permissions.xml', principal => 'ACCT_MGR', is_grant => TRUE, privilege =>
'connect'); DBMS_NETWORK_ACL_ADMIN.ASSIGN_ACL ( acl =>
'mycompany-com-permissions.xml', host => '*.mycompany.com'); END; What is the outcome of
the above code?
A.It produces an error because a fully qualified host name needs to be specified.
B.It produces an error because the range of ports associated with the hosts has not been specified.
C.It creates an access control list (ACL) with the user ACCT_MGR who gets the CONNECT and
RESOLVE privileges.
D.It creates an access control list (ACL) with the user ACCT_MGR who gets the CONNECT privilege but
not the RESOLVE privilege.
Correct:C

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Exam Code: 1Z0-025
Exam Name: Oracle (Backup and Recovery)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 127 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-29

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NO.1 After rebuilding the recovery catalog by resynchronizing it with a copy of the backup
control file, you notice references to files that no longer exist. Which CREATE command
clause should you use to remove these references?
A. REMOVE
B. DELETE
C. UNCATALOG
D. CATALOG REMOVE
Answer: C

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NO.2 What are two causes of user errors? (Choose two)
A. Incorrect data is committed.
B. The operating system crashes.
C. There are insufficient privileges.
D. A table is accidentally truncated.
E. An application file is accidentally deleted.
F. The application program receives an addressing exception.
Answer: A, D

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NO.3 What is the function of SMON in instance recovery?
A. It writes data to the archive log files.
B. It writes data to the online redo log files.
C. It frees resources held by user processes.
D. It synchronizes data file header and control files.
E. It roles forward by applying changes in the redo log.
F. It writes dirty buffers from the buffer cache to the data files.
Answer: E

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NO.4 The command ALTER DATABASE CREATE STANDBY CONTROLFILE AS
standby.ct creates a standby control file. What needs to be done next to create a
standby database?
A. The standby control file needs to be copied to the standby server.
B. The current redo-log files of the primary database need to be archived.
C. The standby database needs to be created using the standby control file.
D. The standby control file needs to be copied to the standby location on the primary
server.
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is the advantage of managed recovery mode?
A. During recovery, most common DBA errors can be avoided.
B. Prompts for applying the next available redo logs suppressed.
C. The primary database automatically ships archived redo log files to the standby server.
D. The standby database automatically applies the archived redo log when the files
become available.
Answer: D

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NO.6 What are two purposes for using the recovery manager command CATALOG?
(Choose two)
A. Updating recovery catalog about rollback segment creation.
B. Updating recovery catalog about files created before RMAN.
C. Updating recovery catalog about operating systems backup.
D. Updating recovery catalog about files created before Oracle 8.
E. Updating recovery catalog about files that belong to a clone database.
Answer: B, C

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NO.7 What is the effect of issuing an ALTER DATABASE OPEN RESETLOGS
command on the primary database?
A. It invalidates the standby database.
B. The standby database can only be used in read-only mode.
C. A new standby database incarnation will automatically be started.
D. Once the archived log files are applied to the standby database, the redo log of the
standby database is reset.
Answer: A

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NO.8 The alert log can contain specific information about which database backup activity?
A. Placing datafiles in begin and end backup mode.
B. Placing tablespace in begin and end backup mode.
C. Changing the database backup mode from open to close.
D. Performing an operating system backup of the database files.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which statement is true when using the LogMiner utility?
A. The dictionary file is created in a directory as defined by UTL_FILE_DIR.
B. The CREATE DBMS LOGMSR command is used to build the dictionary file.
C. The dictionary file must be created after the log file analysis has completed.
D. The dictionary file is created as a backup if the data dictionary gets corrupted.
Answer: A

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NO.10 What are two benefits of using RMAN with a catalog? (Choose two)
A. You can copy the redo-log history into the control file.
B. You can store scripts for backup and recovery operations.
C. You can register the target database with recovery catalog.
D. You can maintain records of backup and recovery operations.
E. You can synchronize the recovery catalog and the target database.
Answer: B, D

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NO.11 Which option is used in the parameter file to detect corruptions in an Oracle data
block?
A. DBVERIFY
B. DBMS_REPAIR
C. DB_BLOCK_CHECKING
D. VALIDITY_STRUCTURE
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which command is used to allow RMAN to store a group of
commands in the recovery catalog?
A. ADD SCRIPT
B. CREATE SCRIPT
C. CREATE COMMAND
D. ADD BACKUP SCRIPT
Answer: B

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NO.13 What is the correct procedure for multiplexing existing online redo logs?
A. Issue the ALTER DATABASE. . . ADD LOGFILE GROUP command.
B. Issue the ALTER DATABASE. . . ADD LOGFILE MEMBER command.
C. Shut down the database, copy the online redo-log, and start up the database.
D. Shut down the database, copy the online redo-log, edit the REDO_LOG_FILES
parameter, and start up the database.
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which statement concerning archiving is true?
A. Archiving occurs during a checkpoint.
B. Archive logs can be written to multiple destinations.
C. Backups are not required when archiving is enabled.
D. Archiving copies the data files to their backup destinations.
E. Archiving can be enabled through recovery manager commands.
Answer: B

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NO.15 What is the effect of activating a standby database?
A. The primary database becomes a standby database.
B. The standby database becomes the primary database.
C. The primary database is deactivated to avoid conflicts.
D. The remaining redo-log files are copied from the primary database and applied.
Answer: B

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NO.16 What is the difference between using NOLOGGING operations in a single database
environment and a standby database environment?
A. There is no difference.
B. NOLOGGING operations are not available in release 0.1
C. The affected data file needs to be copied from the primary to the standby server.
D. NOLOGGING operations can be used on the standby database, but not on the primary
database.
Answer: C

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NO.17 What is the function of ARCn in instance recovery?
A. It writes data to the archive log files.
B. It writes data to the online redo log files.
C. It frees resources held by user processes.
D. It synchronizes data file header and control files.
E. It writes dirty buffers from the buffer cache to the data files.
F. The archive process does not take part in instance recovery.
Answer: F

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NO.18 Your daily report indicating which data files need to be backed up has been
misplaced. Which recovery manager command returns a report containing the files
in the USER_DATA tablespace that have not been backed up within the last three
days?
A. Rman> list backup day 3 tablespace user_data;
B. Rman>report backup day 3 tablespace user_data;
C.Rman>catalog backup day 3 tablespace user_data;
D. Rman>report need backup day 3 tablespace user_data;
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which statement is true when using the DBVERIFYutility to detect corruptions in
an Oracle data block?
A. The utility can only be invoked on a data file that is online.
B. The utility can be used to verify the data files of a backup database.
C. The utility can assist in archiving log files when the database load is high.
D. The utility is internal to the database and so can impact database activates.
Answer: B

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NO.20 What is recommended initial size for a tablespace containing an RMAN recovery
catalog?
A. 10M
B. 20M
C. 100M
D. 10% of size of the target database.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: SC0-501
Exam Name: SCP (Enterprise Security Implementation (ESI) )
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NO.1 What is the average size of a biometric template?
A.Between 10 and 100 KB
B.Between 100 and 500 KB
C.Less than 1 KB
D.Less than 3 bytes
E.Between 500 KB and 1 MB
Answer: C

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NO.2 What are the two primary types of token system?
A.Time-based
B.Passive
C.Challenge/Response
D.Active
E.Seeded
Answer: AC

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NO.3 If a Certificate Authority is also designed to accept requests for certificates, then it can be termed as
what?
A.A Root CA
B.An Intermediate CA
C.A CA Hierarchy
D.A Registration Authority
E.A Repository
Answer: D

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NO.4 What transmission system uses short bursts combined together as a channel?
A.Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum (FHSS)
B.Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS)
C.Lamar Anthell Transmission (LAT)
D.Digital Band Hopping (DBH)
E.Digital Channel Hopping (DCH)
Answer: A

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NO.5 You are in the process of designing your PKI. You are working on the individual systems and servers
that you will need. Which machine that you install is designed simply to enroll new users into the PKI?
A.Certification Authority
B.Archive Server
C.Security Server
D.Registration Authority
E.Certification Repository
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which antenna type is best for extending the local range of an Access Point?
A.Yagi
B.Omni-directional
C.Di-polar
D.Parabolic
E.Mono-polar
Answer: B

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NO.7 One of the many extensions in an X.509 digital certificate is called the SubjectKeyIdentifier. What is
this extension used for?
A.The extension is used to verify the SubjectPrivateKeyInfo
B.The extension is used to match the hashes of the SubjectKeyAlgorithm
C.The extension is used only when the certificate is used for code signing from a defined Subject
D.The extension is used when matching the hash value of the public key on the certificate
E.The extension is used only if the certificate is sent from a Root CA
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following are hash algorithms?
A.MD5
B.SHA
C.RSA
D.3DES
E.AES
Answer: AB

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NO.9 Which of the following can be protected by a patent?
A.A new invention
B.A new product
C.A new process
D.A new name
E.An old product made in a new way
Answer: ABCE

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NO.10 What is a unique benefit to using a File Viewer as one of your Forensics Tools?
A.You do not have to copy data files to your forensic machine for analysis
B.You do not have to worry about modifying the evidence in any manner
C.You are able to view the evidence files in HEX format
D.You do not need to have all the programs installed on your forensic machine to view evidence files
E.You are able to search for specific file types to which the O/S does not have application associations
Answer: D

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NO.11 What type of information can be learned from a user
COOKIES/index.dat file?
A.Their MAC address
B.Their IP address
C.Their email address
D.The websites they have visited
E.The user logon name
Answer: DE

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NO.12 If your goal is to make your CA issue certificates that have specific key usage, what can you use to
achieve this goal?
A.This can be done by using unique DNs for each key use that you want.
B.This can be done by using OIDs for each key use that you want.
C.This can be done by using unique CNs for each key use that you want.
D.This can only be done by selecting the key use options during the setup of the CA.
E.This can be done by installing the identifier file for each key use.
Answer: B

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NO.13 If you are going to build a PKI you will need many different components. What is an industry standard
that you can build your PKI upon?
A.Contiguous distinguished name spaces
B.X.509v3 Certificates
C.A defined hierarchy of authorities
D.128-bit SHA1
E.128-bit MD5
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which of the following is not a category of Intellectual Property?
A.Patents
B.Trademarks
C.Copyrights
D.Manufacturing Standards
E.Trade Secrets
Answer: D

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NO.15 When you install and use PGP on your local computer, where is the key pair stored, by default?
A.secret.ring
B.public.ring
C./usr/bin/pgp
D.pubring.pkr
E.secring.pkr
Answer: DE

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NO.16 When using the 3DES encryption ( C = E
?K1
[D
?K2
[E
?K1
[P]]] ) , what is the function of D?
A.D is the text before encryption
B.D is the first encryption key
C.D is the second encryption key
D.D is the decryption key
E.D is the text after encryption
Answer: D

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NO.17 When an OCSP responder provides a digitally signed response for each of the certificates sent to it by
the relying party in the original request, its reply consists of the certificate identifier, one of three status
values and a validity interval. What are the three status values?
A.Okay, Not Okay, Revoked
B.This Update, Next Update, Future Update
C.Good, Revoked, Unknown
D.Issuer
Public Key, Hash of the Private Key, Unknown
E.Issuer
Private Key, Thumbprint of the Public Key, Unknown
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which of the following numbers are Non-Prime Numbers?
A.23
B.2
C.24
D.39
E.17
Answer: CD

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NO.19 If you receive an X.509 digital certificate that has a unique identifier, but has no extensions, what
version is the certificate?
A.It is a Version 2 certificate
B.It is a Version 3 certificate
C.It is a Version 1 certificate
D.All X.509 digital certificates have unique identifiers
E.The unique identifier is determined by implementation, not version number
Answer: A

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NO.20 There are many certificate templates built into Windows 2000 Certificate Servers. Which of the
following user templates are valid for client authentication?
A.Smart Card Logon
B.Domain Controller
C.Authenticated Session
D.IPSec (Offline Request)
E.Smart Card User
Answer: ACE

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NO.21 When a biometric system performs a one-to-one mapping, what is the systems doing?
A.Identification
B.Authentication
C.Classification
D.Detection
E.Recognition
Answer: B

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NO.22 Incidents are generally categorized as falling into attacks on the CIA triad. Which of the following three
attacks are the general categories?
A.Attacks against Integrity
B.Attacks against Confidentiality
C.Attacks against Availability
D.Attacks against Accuracy
E.Attacks against Collisions
Answer: ABC

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NO.23 Based on the provided image, what type of certification path will be used in this network?
A.Nested certification path
B.Hierarchical certification path
C.Functional certification path
D.Mesh certification path
E.Bridged certification path
Answer: D

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NO.24 If you wish to make your Windows user account use smart cards, where must you go to check this
option?
A.Active Directory Users and Computers
B.Computer Management, Local Users and Groups
C.Active Directory Sites and Services
D.Active Directory Security Services
E.On the Enterprise Certificate Server
Answer: A

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NO.25 If you capture an 802.11 frame, and the ToDS bit is set to zero and the FromDS bit is set to zero, what
type of WLAN is this frame a part of?
A.Mesh
B.Broadcast
C.Infrastructure
D.Hierarchical
E.Ad Hoc
Answer: E

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NO.26 What format is used to list the information that is contained in the Issuer field of an X.509 digital
certificate?
A.FQDN
B.X.500 CN
C.CA Name
D.X.500 DN
E.Position of the CA in the CA hierarchy
Answer: D

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NO.27 What transmission system uses multiple frequencies combined together as a band?
A.Digital Channel Hopping (DCH)
B.Lamar Anthell Transmission (LAT)
C.Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum (FHSS)
D.Digital Band Hopping (DBH)
E.Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS)
Answer: E

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NO.28 In PGP, there are two conditions that can be present to provide for the validity of a certificate. What
are these two conditions?
A.The certificate has been digitally signed by your local trusted root Certificate Authority.
B.The certificate is digitally signed by at least one completely trusted key holder, who has a valid
certificate.
C.The certificate is digitally signed by at least two of the marginally trusted key holders, who have valid
certificates.
D.The certificate has been digitally signed by the sender
trusted root Certificate Authority.
E.The certificate is digitally signed by the sender, who is authenticated by your local Certificate Authority.
Answer: BC

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NO.29 What is the name of the option in Windows to hide, or append, a second file to a main file?
A.The Hidden Bit
B.Dynamic Link Libraries
C.NTFS Streams
D.File Associations
E.Hidden Server Management
Answer: C

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NO.30 When Windows places a file on a FAT 16 partition, what does it look for, in HEX, to know that a file can
be placed in that cluster?
A.0000
B.FFFF
C.0001
D.000F
E.1111
Answer: A

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Exam Code: PgMP
Exam Name: PMI (Program Management Professional (PgMP))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 342 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-28

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NO.1 Your program has been selected and its program charter is now being created. The program charter
defines all of the following characteristics except for which one?
A. Program constraints
B. Program scope
C. High-level objectives for the program
D. Project scope statement for all projects within the program
Answer: D

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NO.2 You are the program manager for your organization. Part of your role as the program manager is to
train John, a new program manager, on the program processes within a program. John is confused as to
when the program team can be acquired in the program management lifecycle.
When will the program team be acquired for a program?
A. Planning
B. Execution
C. Monitoring and controlling
D. Initiation
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is the formula to determine earned value (EV) for a program.?
A. Percent complete times percent remaining in the program
B. Percent completes time the program cost estimate
C. Percent complete times the program budget at completion
D. Percent complete times the program cost of labor and materials
Answer: C

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NO.4 You are program manager for the HYH Program. Your program governance is requiring you to use
earned value management to predict how closely your program is tracking to the cost and schedule
baselines and to predict overall program performance. Which earned value management formula can you
use to predict how much more will need to be invested in the program based on current program
performance?
A. EV/AC
B. EV/PV
C. BAC/CPI
D. EAC-AC
Answer: D

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NO.5 You are the program manager for your organization. Management has asked you to create a document
that will capture the stakeholders concerns, perceived threats, and specific objectives about the program
and its projects. What document is management asking you to create in this instance?
A. Requirements document
B. Project charter
C. Business case
D. Scope statement
Answer: D

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NO.6 You are a program manager for your organization. You have proposed a program to the management
that will last four years and will cost $35 million to create. Management has asked to see the program
charter and the proposed costs and benefits of the program. Management agrees to your program charter
and proposed to fund the program in increment at the completion of each milestone. What type of funding
does management proposed for this program?
A. Tentative
B. Step funding
C. Milestone approval
D. Phase gate estimating
Answer: B

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NO.7 You are the program manager for your organization. When a project in your program is completed,
who will need to sign the certificate of completion?
A. The project manager
B. The program customer
C. The program stakeholders
D. The project management team
Answer: B

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NO.8 You are the program manager of the GHY Program in your organization. It has come to your attention
that some of the project managers in your program are adding time to each project activity in an effort to
pad their durations in case some event happens in their project that will cause delays. What principle
should you share with these project managers that counterattack the concept of padding activities with
additional time?
A. Parkinson's Law
B. Law of Diminishing Returns
C. 80/20 Law
D. Pareto's Law
Answer: A

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NO.9 Mike is the program manager of the NHQ Program. Mike and a vendor are in disagreement over the
deliverable the vendor has created for Mike's program. Mike does not believe the vendor has correctly
created the deliverable, while the vendor is adamant that his company has indeed completed the contract.
Both parties have documented their stance in the debate.
This is an example of what?
A. Breach of contract
B. Issue
C. Risk
D. Claim
Answer: D

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NO.10 A project manager in your program has estimated the cost of a program to be $145,000. As the project
manager's project comes close to completion, the project manager realizes that he has still $27,876 left in
his project budget. He decides to add some additional features to the project's deliverables in an effort to
use the remaining budget. These additions will add value to the project and the project customer is likely
to enjoy these new features. This is an example of what term?
A. Gold plating
B. Errors and omissions
C. Expert judgment by the project manager
D. Value added change
Answer: A

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NO.11 What component of the change management system is responsible for evaluating, testing, and
documenting changes created to the project scope?
A. Project Management Information System
B. Integrated Change Control
C. Scope Verification
D. Configuration Management System
Answer: D

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NO.12 You are the program manager of the BHG Program. One of the projects in your program will be using
new materials that are somewhat untested. You are worried that there may be delays and waste because
the project team is unaware of how to accurately use these materials. You elect to send the people that
will be using the new materials through training on how to complete their project work. You also allow
them to purchase some of the materials to experiment on their use before the actual project work is to be
done. You want to ensure that mistakes do not enter into the project. What type of action have you
provided in this scenario?
A. This is an example of a preventive action.
B. This is an example of team development.
C. This is an example of quality assurance.
D. This is an example of a corrective action.
Answer: A

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NO.13 Andy is the program manager of the HQN Program. This program is nearing its completion and there is
still $25,000 left in the program budget. Andy has asked the program team to identify some extra
deliverables that can be included in the program scope to improve the program deliverable but also to use
all of the funds in the budget. What term is assigned to the actions that Andy is trying to do in this
instance?
A. Value-added change requests
B. Zero based budgeting
C. Integrated change control
D. Gold plating
Answer: D

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NO.14 You are the program manager for your organization. You're currently working with the program director,
Nancy Holmes, to define a new program and the benefits the program should create. Of the following,
which is the best definition of a benefit a program creates?
A. A benefit is an outcome of the constituent projects within a program.
B. A benefit is a project and program deliverables that the organization may use immediately.
C. A benefit is a deliverable of a program or project that is worth more than the cost to create the
deliverable.
D. A benefit is an outcome of actions and behaviors that provides utility to stakeholders.
Answer: D

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NO.15 You are the program manager for your organization and you need to define all of the program
resources you'll need for your program. All of the following can be considered a program resource except
for which one?
A. A forklift
B. Materials for the installation of a new server
C. A positive risk response
D. Gary, an application developer
Answer: C

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NO.16 You are the program manager for your organization. You and your program team have been creating
and transferring the program benefits to operations as feasible in your program execution.
The process of delivering the program's benefits describes what process in program
management?
A. Quality control
B. Benefits management
C. Direct and manage program execution
D. Quality assurance
Answer: C

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NO.17 Olive is the program manager for her organization. She has created a request for proposal for a large
portion of her program. In this work to be procured she has set several requirements for the vendors to
participate. The chief among these requirements is a vendor must have at least four licensed electricians
in his team. This requirement for four licensed electricians is an example of which one of the following
terms?
A. Screening system
B. Scoring model
C. Vendor analysis requirements
D. Evaluation criteria
Answer: A

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NO.18 You are the program manager for the SRQ Program. You have rejected several change requests for
the program scope. What must you do with the rejected change requests?
A. Communicate why the change request was rejected and record the results in the lessons learned
documentation for your program.
B. Inform the stakeholders that their change requests have been rejected.
C. Communicate the change request status to the stakeholders and record the results of the change
request in the change register.
D. Inform the stakeholders why their change requests have been rejected.
Answer: C

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NO.19 What is the present value of a program that will be worth $3,567,000 if it lasts for six years and the rate
of return is five percent?
A. $1,550,850
B. $3,532,000
C. $2,502,750
D. $2,661,750
Answer: D

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NO.20 You are the program manager for your organization. Your program team has 43 people that all need to
be monitored and controlled. You would like to create a standardized report that you can use to monitor,
control, and record the performance of each staff member in your program. What type of report can you
create that will help you track your staff and their performance?
A. Performance reports
B. Staff variance reports
C. Exceptions report
D. Lessons learned
Answer: A

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NO.21 Eric is the project manager of the NQQ Project and has hired the ZAS Corporation to complete part of
the project work for Eric's organization. Due to a change request the ZAS Corporation is no longer
needed on the project even though they have completed nearly all of the project work. Is Eric's
organization liable to pay the ZAS Corporation for the work they have completed so far on the project?
A. It depends on what the outcome of a lawsuit will determine.
B. No, the ZAS Corporation did not complete all of the work.
C. It depends on what the termination clause of the contract stipulates.
D. Yes, the ZAS Corporation did not choose to terminate the contract work.
Answer: C

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NO.22 You are the program manager for your organization. Management would like to consider the present
value for your program. If your program is predicted to be worth $450,000 in two years what is the present
value of the program if the interest rate is six percent?
A. $400,498
B. $521,345
C. $505,620
D. $385,450
Answer: A

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NO.23 Harriet is the program manager of a large program that has a high profile and visibility in her
organization. Some of the stakeholders are negative and Harriet needs to work with these stakeholders to
address their fears, perceived threats, and concerns about the program. Which communication method is
considered to be the best approach for this scenario?
A. Face-to-face
B. Many-to-many
C. Ad hoc conversation
D. One-to-many
Answer: A

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NO.24 Donna is the project manager for her organization. She is preparing a plan to manage changes to the
project should changes be requested. Her change management plan defines the process for
documenting, tracking, and determining if the changes should be approved or declined. What system is
considered the parent of the change control system documented in Donna's plan?
A. Quality Management System
B. Change Control System
C. Project Management Information System
D. Integrated Change Control System
Answer: C

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NO.25 What analysis type could you use in a program to compare the positive stakeholders and their position,
power, and influence over your program to the same variable components of the negative stakeholders in
your program?
A. Sensitivity analysis
B. Stakeholder analysis
C. Monte Carlo simulation
D. Force field analysis
Answer: D

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NO.26 Where are negative risks recorded?
A. Negative risk register
B. Risk management plan
C. Risk register
D. Issues log
Answer: C

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NO.27 Your program has 121 stakeholders that you'll need to communicate with. Your communications
management plan defines how the communication should happen, what should be communicated, and
the expected modality of the communications. You'll also need which one of the following as an input to
the information distribution process in your program?
A. Change requests
B. Earned value management results
C. Stakeholder analysis plan
D. Performance reports
Answer: C

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NO.28 Your company and a competing company have created a teaming agreement for an opportunity.
Through this team agreement you and your competitor can complete a major program for a client.
This is, technically, a risk response for both organizations. What type of risk response are you dealing with
in this instance?
A. Teaming
B. Exploiting
C. Accepting
D. Sharing
Answer: D

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NO.29 You have created a control chart for a repeatable process in your program. You have discovered that
the seven most recent measurements are all on the positive side of the mean in your control chart. What
is this phenomenon called?
A. Rule of Improvement
B. Mean Improvement
C. Rule of Seven
D. Low-Riding Mean
Answer: C

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NO.30 You are the program manager of the NHQ Program. You are working with your program team to ensure
that the work in the program is done accurately and according to scope. You are also reviewing the team
inspection process that will need to be done to ensure that the work is being done according to the scope.
If the work is found to be defective it will need to be corrected before the program customers can inspect
the work. What process are you completing to ensure that the work is done accordingly to scope?
A. Quality control
B. Scope verification
C. Quality assurance
D. Planning
Answer: C

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