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Exam Code: 1Z0-051
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle Database: SQL Fundamentals I)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 292 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-11

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NO.1 View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the CUSTOMERS table.
Which two tasks would require subqueries or joins to be executed in a single statement? (Choose two.)
A. listing of customers who do not have a credit limit and were born before 1980
B. finding the number of customers, in each city, whose marital status is 'married'
C. finding the average credit limit of male customers residing in 'Tokyo' or 'Sydney'
D. listing of those customers whose credit limit is the same as the credit limit of customers residing in the
city 'Tokyo'
E. finding the number of customers, in each city, whose credit limit is more than the average credit limit of
all the customers
Answer: DE

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NO.2 Using the CUSTOMERS table, you need to generate a report that shows 50% of each credit
amount in each income level. The report should NOT show any repeated credit amounts in each income
level.
Which query would give the required result?
A. SELECT cust_income_level, DISTINCT cust_credit_limit * 0.50
AS "50% Credit Limit"
FROM customers;
B. SELECT DISTINCT cust_income_level, DISTINCT cust_credit_limit * 0.50
AS "50% Credit Limit"
FROM customers;
C. SELECT DISTINCT cust_income_level ' ' cust_credit_limit * 0.50
AS "50% Credit Limit"
FROM customers;
D. SELECT cust_income_level ' ' cust_credit_limit * 0.50 AS "50% Credit Limit"
FROM customers;
Answer: C

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NO.3 View the E xhibit and examine the data in the EMPLOYEES table.
You want to generate a report showing the total compensation paid to each employee to date.
You issue the following query:
SQL>SELECT ename ' joined on ' hiredate
', the total compensation paid is '
TO_CHAR(ROUND(ROUND(SYSDATE-hiredate)/365) * sal + comm)
"COMPENSATION UNTIL DATE"
FROM employees;
What is the outcome?
A. It generates an error because the alias is not valid.
B. It executes successfully and gives the correct output.
C. It executes successfully but does not give the correct output.
D. It generates an error because the usage of the ROUND function in the expression is not valid.
E. It generates an error because the concatenation operator can be used to combine only two items.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which statement is true regarding the INTERSECT operator?
A. It ignores NULL values.
B. Reversing the order of the intersected tables alters the result.
C. The names of columns in all SELECT statements must be identical.
D. The number of columns and data types must be identical for all SELECT statements in the query.
Answer: D

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NO.5 View the Exhibit; e xamine the structure of the PROMOTIONS table.
Each promotion has a duration of at least seven days .
Your manager has asked you to generate a report, which provides the weekly cost for each promotion
done to l date.
Which query would achieve the required result?
A. SELECT promo_name, promo_cost/promo_end_date-promo_begin_date/7
FROM promotions;
B. SELECT promo_name,(promo_cost/promo_end_date-promo_begin_date)/7
FROM promotions;
C. SELECT promo_name, promo_cost/(promo_end_date-promo_begin_date/7)
FROM promotions;
D. SELECT promo_name, promo_cost/((promo_end_date-promo_begin_date)/7)
FROM promotions;
Answer: D

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NO.6 View the Exhibit to examine the description for the SALES table.
Which views can have all DML operations performed on it? (Choose all that apply.)
A. CREATE VIEW v3
AS SELECT * FROM SALES
WHERE cust_id = 2034
WITH CHECK OPTION;
B. CREATE VIEW v1
AS SELECT * FROM SALES
WHERE time_id <= SYSDATE - 2*365
WITH CHECK OPTION;
C. CREATE VIEW v2
AS SELECT prod_id, cust_id, time_id FROM SALES
WHERE time_id <= SYSDATE - 2*365
WITH CHECK OPTION;
D. CREATE VIEW v4
AS SELECT prod_id, cust_id, SUM(quantity_sold) FROM SALES
WHERE time_id <= SYSDATE - 2*365
GROUP BY prod_id, cust_id
WITH CHECK OPTION;
Answer: AB

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NO.7 Which two statements are true regarding the USING and ON clauses in table joins? (Choose two.)
A. Both USING and ON clauses can be used for equijoins and nonequijoins.
B. A maximum of one pair of columns can be joined between two tables using the ON clause.
C. The ON clause can be used to join tables on columns that have different names but compatible data
types.
D. The WHERE clause can be used to apply additional conditions in SELECT statements containing the
ON or the USING clause.
Answer: CD

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NO.8 Which three statements are true regarding the data types in Oracle Database 10g/11g? (Choose
three.)
A. Only one LONG column can be used per table.
B. A TIMESTAMP data type column stores only time values with fractional seconds.
C. The BLOB data type column is used to store binary data in an operating system file.
D. The minimum column width that can be specified for a VARCHAR2 data type column is one.
E. The value for a CHAR data type column is blank-padded to the maximum defined column width.
Answer: ADE

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NO.9 You need to produce a report where each customer's credit limit has been incremented by $1000. In
the output, t he customer's last name should have the heading Name and the incremented credit limit
should be labeled New Credit Limit. The column headings should have only the first letter of each word in
uppercase .
Which statement would accomplish this requirement?
A. SELECT cust_last_name Name, cust_credit_limit + 1000
"New Credit Limit"
FROM customers;
B. SELECT cust_last_name AS Name, cust_credit_limit + 1000
AS New Credit Limit
FROM customers;
C. SELECT cust_last_name AS "Name", cust_credit_limit + 1000
AS "New Credit Limit"
FROM customers;
D. SELECT INITCAP(cust_last_name) "Name", cust_credit_limit + 1000
INITCAP("NEW CREDIT LIMIT")
FROM customers;
Answer: C

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NO.10 View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the PRODUCTS table.
You need to generate a report in the following format:
CATEGORIES
5MP Digital Photo Camera's category is Photo
Y Box's category is Electronics
Envoy Ambassador's category is Hardware
Which two queries would give the required output? (Choose two.)
A. SELECT prod_name q'''s category is ' prod_category CATEGORIES
FROM products;
B. SELECT prod_name q'['s ]'category is ' prod_category CATEGORIES
FROM products;
C. SELECT prod_name q'\'s\' ' category is ' prod_category CATEGORIES
FROM products;
D. SELECT prod_name q'<'s >' 'category is ' prod_category CATEGORIES
FROM products;
Answer: CD

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NO.11 Which SQL statements would display the value 1890.55 as $1,890.55? (Choose three .)
A. SELECT TO_CHAR(1890.55,'$0G000D00')
FROM DUAL;
B. SELECT TO_CHAR(1890.55,'$9,999V99')
FROM DUAL;
C. SELECT TO_CHAR(1890.55,'$99,999D99')
FROM DUAL;
D. SELECT TO_CHAR(1890.55,'$99G999D00')
FROM DUAL;
E. SELECT TO_CHAR(1890.55,'$99G999D99')
FROM DUAL;
Answer: ADE

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NO.12 View the Exhibit and examine the data in the CUSTOMERS table.
Evaluate the following query:
SQL> SELECT cust_name AS "NAME", cust_credit_limit/2 AS MIDPOINT,MIDPOINT+100 AS "MAX
LOWER LIMIT"
FROM customers;
The above query produces an error on execution.
What is the reason for the error?
A. An alias cannot be used in an expression.
B. The a lias NAME should not be enclosed with in double quotation marks .
C. The MIDPOINT+100 expression gives an error because CUST_CREDIT_LIMIT contains NULL
values.
D. The a lias MIDPOINT should be enclosed with in double quotation marks for the
CUST_CREDIT_LIMIT/2 expression .
Answer: A

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NO.13 Evaluate the following query:
SELECT INTERVAL '300' MONTH,
INTERVAL '54-2' YEAR TO MONTH,
INTERVAL '11:12:10.1234567' HOUR TO SECOND
FROM dual;
What is the correct output of the above query?
A. +25-00 , +54-02, +00 11:12:10.123457
B. +00-300, +54-02, +00 11:12:10.123457
C. +25-00 , +00-650, +00 11:12:10.123457
D. +00-300 , +00-650, +00 11:12:10.123457
Answer: A

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NO.14 Examine the structure of the PROMOTIONS table:
name Null Type
PROMO_ID NOT NULL NUMBER(6)
PROMO_NAME NOT NULL VARCHAR2(30)
PROMO_CATEGORY NOT NULL VARCHAR2(30)
PROMO_COST NOT NULL NUMBER(10,2)
The management wants to see a report of unique promotion costs in each promotion category.
Which query would achieve the required result?
A. SELECT DISTINCT promo_cost, promo_category FROM promotions;
B. SELECT promo_category, DISTINCT promo_cost FROM promotions;
C. SELECT DISTINCT promo_cost, DISTINCT promo_category FROM promotions;
D. SELECT DISTINCT promo_category, promo_cost FROM promotions ORDER BY 1;
Answer: D

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NO.15 You need to extract details of those products in the SALES table where the PROD_ID column
contains the string '_D123'.
Which WHERE clause could be used in the SELECT statement to get the required output?
A. WHERE prod_id LIKE '%_D123%' ESCAPE '_'
B. WHERE prod_id LIKE '%\_D123%' ESCAPE '\'
C. WHERE prod_id LIKE '%_D123%' ESCAPE '%_'
D. WHERE prod_id LIKE '%\_D123%' ESCAPE '\_'
Answer: B

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NO.16 View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the PRODUCTS table.
All products have a list price.
You issue the following command to display the total price of each product after a discount of 25% and a
tax of 15% are applied on it. Freight charges of $100 have to be applied to all the products.
SQL>SELECT prod_name, prod_list_price -(prod_list_price*(25/100))
+(prod_list_price -(prod_list_price*(25/100))*(15/100))+100
AS "TOTAL PRICE"
FROM products;
What would be the outcome if all the parenthese s are removed from the above statement?
A. It produces a syntax error.
B. The result remains unchanged.
C. The total price value would be lower than the correct value.
D. The total price value would be higher than the correct value.
Answer: B

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NO.17 Examine the structure of the SHIPMENTS table:
name Null Type
PO_ID NOT NULL NUMBER(3)
PO_DATE NOT NULL DATE
SHIPMENT_DATE NOT NULL DATE
SHIPMENT_MODE VARCHAR2(30)
SHIPMENT_COST NUMBER(8,2)
You want to generate a report that displays the PO_ID and the penalty amount to be paid if the
SHIPMENT_DATE is later than one month from the PO_DATE. The penalty is $20 per day.
Evaluate the following two queries:
SQL> SELECT po_id, CASE
WHEN MONTHS_BETWEEN (shipment_date,po_date)>1 THEN
TO_CHAR((shipment_date - po_date) * 20) ELSE 'No Penalty' END PENALTY
FROM shipments;
SQL>SELECT po_id, DECODE
(MONTHS_BETWEEN (po_date,shipment_date)>1,
TO_CHAR((shipment_date - po_date) * 20), 'No Penalty') PENALTY
FROM shipments;
Which statement is true regarding the above commands?
A. Both execute successfully and give correct results.
B. Only the first query executes successfully but gives a wrong result.
C. Only the first query executes successfully and gives the correct result.
D. Only the second query executes successfully but gives a wrong result.
E. Only the second query executes successfully and gives the correct result.
Answer: C

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NO.18 Evaluate the following query:
SQL> SELECT promo_name q'{'s start date was }' promo_begin_date
AS "Promotion Launches"
FROM promotions;
What would be the outcome of the above query?
A. It produces an error because flower braces have been used.
B. It produces an error because the data types are not matching.
C. It executes successfully and introduces an 's at the end of each promo_name in the output.
D. It executes successfully and displays the literal " {'s start date was } " for each row in the output.
Answer: C

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NO.19 View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the SALES, CUSTOMERS, PRODUCTS, and TIMES
tables.
The PROD_ID column is the foreign key in the SALES table, which references the PRODUCTS table.
Similarly, the CUST_ID and TIME_ID columns are also foreign keys in the SALES table referencing the
CUSTOMERS and TIMES tables, respectively.
Evaluate the following CREATE TABLE command:
CREATE TABLE new_sales(prod_id, cust_id, order_date DEFAULT SYSDATE)
AS
SELECT prod_id, cust_id, time_id
FROM sales;
Which statement is true regarding the above command?
A. The NEW_SALES table would not get created because the DEFAULT value cannot be specified in the
column definition.
B. The NEW_SALES table would get created and all the NOT NULL constraints defined on the specified
columns would be passed to the new table.
C. The NEW_SALES table would not get created because the column names in the CREATE TABLE
command and the SELECT clause do not match.
D. The NEW_SALES table would get created and all the FOREIGN KEY constraints defined on the
specified columns would be passed to the new table.
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which two statements are true regarding single row functions? (Choose two.)
A. They a ccept only a single argument.
B. They c an be nested only to two levels.
C. Arguments can only be column values or constants.
D. They a lways return a single result row for every row of a queried table.
E. They c an return a data type value different from the one that is referenced.
Answer: DE

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Exam Code: 1Z0-141
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle9i forma Developer:build internet applications)
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Total Q&A: 138 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-11

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NO.1 You are developing a Human Resources form for HR clerks to insert, update, and delete
records from the EMPLOYEES table. When the user commits records, Forms displays the default
informative message "FRM-40400: Transaction complete: records applied and saved." You want
to replace that with the message "Records inserted: Records updated: Records deleted: ", where
represents the number of records inserted, updated, and deleted. Which triggers must you create
or modify to accomplish this?
A.On-Message only
B.Post-Commit and On-Message
C.Post-Database-Commit and On-Message
D.When-Validate-Record and On-Message
E.Post-Insert, Post-Update, Post-Delete, and On-Message
Correct:E

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NO.2 The Warehouse.fmb module contains two data blocks. You want to display items from each
data block on separate content canvases. You must ensure that both content canvases are visible
together at run time. Which two statements about content canvases are correct? (Choose two.)
A.A window cannot display more than one content canvas during a run time session.
B.A content canvas can be associated with a window by setting the Window property of the canvas.
C.Two or more content canvases can be displayed by associating each of them with a different window.
D.A content canvas can be associated with a window by setting the Primary Canvas property of the
window.
E.A content canvas can be associated with two or more windows by setting the Primary Canvas property
of the windows.
F.Two or more content canvases can be displayed by setting their viewports to be smaller than the
window with which they are to be associated.
Correct:B C

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NO.3 You have the Orders form open in Forms Builder. You create an object group in the Orders form
and you try to drag various components in the Object Navigator to the object group. Which two
components will you be unable to place in the object group? (Choose two.)
A.the Orders block of the Orders form
B.the Order_CV canvas of the Orders form
C.the When-New-Item-Instance trigger of the Order_Items.Quantity item in the Orders from
D.the When-New-Form-Instance trigger of the Orders form
E.the Product_Id item in the Order_Items block of the Orders form
Correct:C E

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NO.4 To centralize some of your processing, you decide to write PL/SQL library modules that contain
procedures that can be called from form triggers or menu items. You need to populate some fields
based on values in other fields. Which code do you use?
A.IF FIND_ITEM('ORDERS.order_total') > 10000 THEN FIND_ITEM('ORDERS.large_order') := 'Y';
MESSAGE('WARNING - large order!'); END IF;
B.IF :ORDERS.order_total > 10000 THEN :ORDERS.large_order := 'Y'; MESSAGE('WARNING - large
order!'); END IF;
C.IF 'ORDERS.order_total' > 10000 THEN 'ORDERS.large_order' := 'Y'; MESSAGE('WARNING - large
order!'); END IF;
D.IF :ORDERS.order_total > 10000 THEN COPY('ORDERS.large_order','Y'); MESSAGE('WARNING -
large order!'); END IF;
E.IF NAME_IN('ORDERS.order_total') > 10000 THEN COPY('Y','ORDERS.large_order');
MESSAGE('WARNING - large order!'); END IF;
Correct:E

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NO.5 View the Exhibit. You are running a form in debug mode, but you have not set any breakpoints
in the code. You click a button that invokes the code shown in the exhibit. While the code
executes, you decide to examine the variable values in the loop. Which menu items in the Forms
Builder Debug menu would you choose?
A.Stop, Debug Windows > Variables
B.Pause, Debug Windows > Variables
C.Stop, Debug Windows > Form Values
D.Pause, Debug Windows > Form Values
E.Step Into, Debug Windows > Variables
F.Step Into, Debug Windows > Form Values
Correct:B

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NO.6 The two-column LOCATION Record Group has 10 rows. At run time, the user wants to mark two
or more LOCATION records for use by another Forms Builder object. The rows will be used to
construct a WHERE clause for a subsequent data block query. Which built-in enable individual
rows to be marked?
A.ADD_GROUP_COLUMN
B.SET_RECORD_PROPERTY
C.GET_GROUP_SELECTION
D.SET_GROUP_SELECTION
E.RESET_GROUP_SELECTION
F.GET_GROUP_RECORD_NUMBER
Correct:D

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NO.7 Which two statements correctly describe the relationship between a content canvas and a
window? (Choose two.)
A.Only one content canvas can be associated with a window.
B.Only one content canvas at a time can appear in a window.
C.One or more content canvases can be associated with a window.
D.A content canvas can be associated with two or more windows.
E.A content canvas cannot be larger than the window with which it is associated.
F.A maximum of two content canvases can appear in a window at the same time.
Correct:B C

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NO.8 Your company assigns three possible credit ratings to customers: Poor, Good, and Excellent
(represented numerically by 1, 2, and 3). The DBA has just added a RATING column to the
CUSTOMERS table and has asked you to add an item to your form so that credit ratings can be
recorded. To restrict data entry clerks to one of these three values, you decide to create a radio
group for the Rating item. You want to allow for an undetermined (Null) credit rating, and users
should be able to update the credit rating from a value to an undetermined rating. How can you
implement this?
A.Create three radio buttons for each of the credit ratings, and set the Mapping of Other Values for the
radio group to Null.
B.Create three radio buttons for each of the credit ratings, and set the Mapping of Other Values for the
radio group to one of the credit rating values.
C.Create four radio buttons, and leave blank the value for the undetermined credit rating.
D.Choose a different type of input item, because radio groups do not allow entry and update of null values.
Correct:C

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NO.9 Which two statements about a Non-Query Record Group are true? (Choose two.)
A.The Record Group is associated with a query at run time or at design time.
B.The Record Group can be created and modified only at run time.
C.The Record Group can be created and modified only at design time.
D.The Record Group can be created and modified at design time or at run time.
E.You can modify the structure of this Record Group by adding columns and rows.
F.The Record Group is associated with a query only at design time.
Correct:B E

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NO.10 What type of message indicates a Forms message that cannot be suppressed?
A.a Busy message
B.a level 0 message
C.a Working message
D.a level 25 message
E.a level 50 message
F.a message with a level less than 0
G.a message with a level greater than 25
H.a message with a level greater than 50
Correct:G

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NO.11 View the Exhibit. The EMPLOYEES table contains 100 records. You are developing a Human
Resources form that has an Employees block with properties as shown in the exhibit. When you
run the form and execute a query in the Employees block, approximately how many network
round trips will be made to the server before records are displayed in the block?
A.1
B.2
C.10
D.50
E.100
Correct:C

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NO.12 LibraryA and LibraryB are in the working directory of the Employees form. Library A is attached
to the Employees form. There is a stored procedure in the database called Raise_Salary which
must be called without any parameters. There is no Raise_Salary procedure in the form or in the
attached library. A When-Button-Pressed trigger in the Employees form contains this code:
raise_salary; Where does Forms search for the Raise_Salary procedure?
A.first in the attached library, then in the database
B.first in the form module, then in the attached library
C.first in the form module, then in the attached library, then in the database
D.first in the form module, then in the attached library, then in other libraries in the working directory, then
in the database
E.in the form module only
F.in the attached library only
G.in the database only
Correct:C

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NO.13 View the Exhibit. You are coding a When-New-Form-Instance trigger to populate a hierarchical
tree item called Emp_Tree that should initially appear as shown in the exhibit. Mr. King, the
president of the company, is the only employee who does not have a manager. In the trigger, you
declare a variable called rg_emps that is of the RECORDGROUP data type. You will use this record
group to populate the tree. You use the following code to create the record group: rg_emps :=
Create_Group_From_Query('rg_emps', 'select 1, level, last_name, NULL, to_char(employee_id)
from employees connect by prior employee_id = manager_id start with manager_id is null'); You
then programmatically populate the record group, and then populate the tree with the record
group. You run the form to test it. Will the tree initially appear as shown? If not, why not?
A.Yes, the tree will appear as shown.
B.No. The first element selected in the select statement should be 4 because you want four levels of the
tree to be displayed.
C.No. You should eliminate the last element selected in the select statement, because you do not want to
display the employee ID.
D.No. The "connect by" statement should be "connect by prior manager_id = employee_id".
Correct:A

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NO.14 You need to resize the INVENTORY tab canvas. The Viewport Width and Height properties are
200 and 300. You change the values to 150 and 120, respectively. What implication may this have
on your design?
A.Some tab pages may be obscured at run time.
B.By decreasing the Viewport Width property, some tab pages may be deleted.
C.Objects previously within the borders of a tab page may fall outside the tab page border, and you will
get compilation errors.
D.Objects previously within the borders of a tab page may fall outside the tab page border and will be
visible at run time only by navigating to them programmatically.
E.Objects previously within the borders of a tab page may fall outside the tab page border and will be
assigned to the null canvas.
Correct:C

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NO.15 You want to create a calculated item in the Control block of the Human Resources form. This
item will contain the total of employee salaries for employees in a particular department. Which
statement is true about how to create the calculated item?
A.You can create it by first creating a text item and then changing the item type.
B.You can create it in the Layout Editor using a special tool that creates a calculated item.
C.You can create it by first creating a display item and then setting appropriate properties in its Calculation
property group.
D.You can create it in the Layout Editor by selecting the Salary item of the Employees block, selecting the
Control block from the block list, clicking the Text Item tool, and drawing a text item on the canvas to
automatically calculate a sum of the selected Salary item.
Correct:C

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NO.16 In the Orders form you define five LOVs, and you create one button to be used to display any of
the LOVs. The button is enabled only when the user navigates to a field with an attached LOV. If
the user supplies only part of the required input data, the LOVs use that input as search criteria to
automatically reduce the LOV contents. If the LOVs hold only one value that can possibly match
user-supplied input, then the LOVs auto-complete the input field and are not displayed. Which
built-in and properties should you use to display the LOVs?
A.Use the List_Values(RESTRICT) built-in, and set the Mouse Navigate property value to NO.
B.Use the List_Values(RESTRICT) built-in, and set the Mouse Navigate property value to YES.
C.Use the List_Values(NO_RESTRICT) built-in, and set the Mouse Navigate property value to NO.
D.Use the List_Values(NO_RESTRICT) built-in, and set the Mouse Navigate property value to YES.
E.Use the Show_LOV built-in, and set the Mouse Navigate property value to YES.
F.Use the Show_LOV built-in, and set the Mouse Navigate property value to NO.
Correct:A

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NO.17 In a multiform application, one form must invoke another. The form modules are called
Customers and Orders internally, but the compiled files are saved as CUST.FMX and ORD.FMX,
respectively. There is a button in the Customers form with a When-Button-Pressed trigger to
invoke the Orders form. There is a requirement that only one Orders form can be running at a time,
so the trigger must check to see if the form is already open. If it is open, the focus must be sent to
it. If it is not open, it has to be opened. Which of these trigger codes will achieve the required
functionality?
A.IF NOT FIND_FORM('ord') THEN OPEN_FORM('ord'); ELSE GO_FORM('orders'); END IF;
B.IF ID_NULL(FIND_FORM('ord')) THEN OPEN_FORM('orders'); ELSE GO_FORM('ord'); END IF;
C.IF ID_NULL(FIND_FORM('orders')) THEN OPEN_FORM('ord'); ELSE GO_FORM('orders'); END IF;
D.IF NOT FIND_FORM('orders')) THEN OPEN_FORM('orders'); ELSE GO_FORM('ord'); END IF;
Correct:C

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NO.18 View the Exhibit. You are modifying the New_Orders form. You want to change the navigation
order of the Orders block so that Order_Status is between Order_Date and Order_Mode in the
navigation order. You attempt to drag the Order_Status item in the Object Navigator (as shown in
the exhibit), but Forms does not allow you to release the item in the desired position. Why is this
happening, and what can you do to change the navigation order?
A.Because the data block is subclassed, you cannot change the order of items in the object navigator, but
you can change item properties to affect the navigation order.
B.Because the data block is subclassed, you can only drag objects to a lower position in the Object
Navigator, so you can drag Order_Mode and Customer_Id to a position below Order_Status.
C.Because the data block is subclassed, you will have to delete the object and then create it again in the
desired position.
D.Because the item is subclassed, you cannot change any of its properties.
Correct:A

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NO.19 Consider the following scenario: In a multiform application, the user started in FormA. 1. From
FormA, the user invoked FormB using CALL_FORM. 2. From FormB, the user invoked FormC
using OPEN_FORM. 3. From FormC, the user invoked FormD using OPEN_FORM. 4. From FormB,
the user invoked FormE using CALL_FORM. There is an additional form in the application, called
FormF. Which statement is true?
A.FormF can be invoked from FormC using CALL_FORM.
B.FormF can be invoked from FormA using OPEN_FORM.
C.FormF can be invoked from FormD using CALL_FORM.
D.FormF can be invoked from FormE using CALL_FORM.
E.FormF can be invoked from FormB using OPEN_FORM.
Correct:D

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NO.20 You created a query Record Group at design time. Which built-in can you use to execute the
query defined in the Record Group object?
A.ADD_GROUP_ROW
B.POPULATE _GROUP
C.ADD_GROUP_COLUMN
D.SET_GROUP_SELECTION
E.CREATE_GROUP_FROM_QUERY
F.POPULATE _GROUP_WITH_QUERY
Correct:B

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Exam Code: 1Z1-050
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle Database 11g: New Features for Administrators)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 183 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-11

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NO.1 Your organization decided to upgrade the existing Oracle 10g database to Oracle 11g database in a
multiprocessor environment. At the end of the upgrade, you observe that the DBA executes the following
script:
SQL> @utlrp.sql
What is the significance of executing this script?
A.It performs parallel recompilation of only the stored PL/SQL code.
B.It performs sequential recompilation of only the stored PL/SQL code.
C.It performs parallel recompilation of any stored PL/SQL as well as Java code.
D.It performs sequential recompilation of any stored PL/SQL as well as Java code.
Answer: C

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NO.2 During the installation of Oracle Database 11g, you do not set ORACLE_BASE explicitly. You selected
the option to create a database as part of the installation. How would this environment variable setting
affect the installation?
A.The installation terminates with an error.
B.The installation proceeds with the default value without warnings and errors.
C.The installation proceeds with the default value but it would not be an OFA-compliant database.
D.The installation proceeds with the default value but a message would be generated in the alert log file.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Examine the following PL/SQL block:
Which statement describes the effect of the execution of the above PL/SQL block?
A.The plan baselines are verified with the SQL profiles.
B.All fixed plan baselines are converted into nonfixed plan baselines.
C.All the nonaccepted SQL profiles are accepted into the plan baseline.
D.The nonaccepted plans in the SQL Management Base are verified with the existing plan baselines.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which two statements about Oracle Direct Network File System (NFS) are true? (Choose two.)
A.It bypasses the OS file system cache.
B.A separate NFS interface is required for use across Linux, UNIX, and Windows platforms.
C.It uses the operating system kernel NFS layer for user tasks and network communication modules.
D.File systems need not be mounted by the kernel NFS system when being served through Direct NFS.
E.Oracle Disk Manager can manage NFS on its own, without using the operating system kernel NFS
driver.
Answer: AE

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NO.5 You decided to use Direct NFS configuration in a non-RAC Oracle installation and created the
oranfstab file in /etc.
Which two statements are true regarding this oranfstab file? (Choose two.)
A.Its entries are specific to a single database.
B.It contains file systems that have been mounted by Direct NFS.
C.It is globally available to all Oracle 11g databases on the machine.
D.It contains file systems that have been mounted by the kernel NFS system.
Answer: CD

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NO.6 You are managing an Oracle 11g database with ASM storage, for which the COMPATIBLE initialization
parameter is set to 11.1.0. In the ASM instance, the COMPATIBLE.RDBMS attribute for the disk group is
set to 10.2 and the COMPATIBLE.ASM attribute is set to 11.1.
Which two statements are true in this scenario for the features enabled for ASM? (Choose two.)
A.The ASM-preferred mirror read feature is enabled.
B.The ASM supports variable sizes for extents of 1, 8, and 64 allocation units.
C.The ASM disk is dropped immediately from a disk group when it becomes unavailable.
D.The RDBMS always reads the primary copy of a mirrored extent of the ASM disk group.
Answer: AB

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NO.7 What are the recommendations for Oracle Database 11g installation to make it Optimal Flexible
Architecture (OFA)-compliant? (Choose all that apply.)
A.ORACLE_BASE should be set explicitly.
B.An Oracle base should have only one Oracle home created in it.
C.Flash recovery area and data file location should be on separate disks.
D.Flash recovery area and data file location should be created under Oracle base in a non-Automatic
Storage Management (ASM) setup.
Answer: ACD

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NO.8 You are managing the APPPROD database as a DBA. You plan to duplicate this database in the same
system with the name DUPDB.
You issued the following RMAN commands to create a duplicate database:
Which three are the prerequisites for the successful execution of the above command? (Choose three.)
A.The source database should be open.
B.The target database should be in ARCHIVELOG mode if it is open.
C.RMAN should be connected to both the instances as SYSDBA.
D.The target database backups should be copied to the source database backup directories.
E.The password file must exist for the source database and have the same SYS user password as the
target.
Answer: BCE

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NO.9 Which two statements are true with respect to the maintenance window? (Choose two.)
A.A DBA can enable or disable an individual task in all maintenance windows.
B.A DBA cannot change the duration of the maintenance window after it is created.
C.In case of a long maintenance window, all Automated Maintenance Tasks are restarted every four
hours.
D.A DBA can control the percentage of the resource allocated to the Automated Maintenance Tasks in
each window.
Answer: AD

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NO.10 Identify two situations in which you can use Data Recovery Advisor for recovery. (Choose two.)
A.The database files are corrupted when the database is open.
B.The archived log files are missing for which backup is not available.
C.The user has dropped an important table that needs to be recovered.
D.You are not able to start up the database instance because the required database files are missing.
Answer: AD

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NO.11 Which two statements are true regarding the starting of the database instance using the following
command? (Choose two.)
SQL>STARTUP UPGRADE
A.It enables all system triggers.
B.It allows only SYSDBA connections.
C.It ensures that all job queues remain active during the upgrade process.
D.It sets system initialization parameters to specific values that are required to enable database upgrade
scripts to be run.
Answer: BD

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NO.12 Which two are the prerequisites to enable Flashback Data Archive? (Choose two.)
A.Undo retention guarantee must be enabled.
B.Database must be running in archivelog mode.
C.Automatic undo management must be enabled.
D.The tablespace on which the Flashback Data Archive is created must be managed with Automatic
Segment Space Management (ASSM).
Answer: CD

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NO.13 Which two statements are true regarding hot patching? (Choose two.)
A.It requires relinking of the Oracle binary.
B.It does not require database instance shutdown.
C.It can detect conflicts between two online patches.
D.It is available for installing all patches on all platforms.
E.It works only in a single database instance environment.
Answer: BC

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NO.14 Which steps are mandatory to enable Direct NFS?
A.2 and 3
B.1 and 3
C.1 and 2
D.1, 2 and 3
Answer: B

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NO.15 You installed Oracle Database 11g and are performing a manual upgrade of the Oracle9i database.
As a part of the upgrade process, you execute the following script:
SQL>@utlu111i.sql
Which statement about the execution of this script is true?
A.It must be executed from the Oracle Database 11g environment.
B.It must be executed only after the SYSAUX tablespace has been created.
C.It must be executed from the environment of the database that is being upgraded.
D.It must be executed only after AUTOEXTEND is set to ON for all existing tablespaces.
E.It must be executed from both the Oracle Database 11g and Oracle Database 9i environments.
Answer: C

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NO.16 You opened the encryption wallet and then issued the following command:
Then you closed the wallet. Later, you issued the following command to create the EMPLOYEES table in
the SECURESPACE tablespace and you use the NO SALT option for the EMPID column.
What is the outcome?
A.It creates the table and encrypts the data in it.
B.It generates an error because the wallet is closed.
C.It creates the table but does not encrypt the data in it.
D.It generates an error because the NO SALT option cannot be used with the ENCRYPT option.
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which dependent object will get invalidated even if it is not affected by the table redefinition?
A.views
B.triggers
C.packages
D.synonyms
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which is the source used by Automatic SQL Tuning that runs as part of the AUTOTASK framework?
A.SQL statements that are part of the AWR baseline only
B.SQL statements based on the AWR top SQL identification
C.SQL statements that are part of the available SQL Tuning Set (STS) only
D.SQL statements that are available in the cursor cache and executed by a user other than SYS
Answer: B

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NO.19 Following is the list of locations in random order where oranfstab can be placed.
What is the sequence in which Direct NFS will search the locations?
A.1, 2, 3
B.3, 2, 1
C.2, 3, 1
D.1, 3, 2
Answer: C

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NO.20 In which two aspects does hot patching differ from conventional patching? (Choose two.)
A.It consumes more memory compared with conventional patching.
B.It can be installed and uninstalled via OPatch unlike conventional patching.
C.It takes more time to install or uninstall compared with conventional patching.
D.It does not require down time to apply or remove unlike conventional patching.
E.It is not persistent across instance startup and shutdown unlike conventional patching.
Answer: AD

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Exam Code: 1Z0-610
Exam Name: Oracle (Siebel CRM OnDemand 2006 administrator Exam)
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Total Q&A: 85 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-11

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NO.1 Your customer is concerned about the Siebel CRM OnDemand environment going down, negatively
affecting his business. Which of the following can you cite to reassure your customer that Siebel CRM
OnDemand is designed for High Availability? Choose three.
A.Clustered servers
B.Redundancy within the hardware and network components
C.Load Balancing
D.Database de-normalization
E.JavaScript usage
Answer: ABC

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NO.2 Bill Williams is a manager of a sales team. His role gives him Read/Create default access to accounts.
Jane Jones is a sales representative who reports to Bill Williams. Her role gives her Create-Only default
access to accounts, and Read/Edit/Delete owner access. Jane owns the ACE Industries account record
in Siebel CRM OnDemand.
Jane changes the owner on the ACE Industries account to Frank Ford, a sales representative who does
not report to Bill Williams, but to a sales manager on another team. What kind of access does Jane now
have to the ACE Industries record?
A.No Access
B.Read/Create
C.Read/Edit/Delete
D.Read-Only
Answer: A

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NO.3 Your customer is concerned about the Siebel CRM OnDemand environment performing slowly,
negatively affecting her business. Which of the following can you cite to reassure your customer that
Siebel CRM OnDemand is designed for High Performance? Choose three.
A.Load Balancing
B.Extensive JavaScript usage
C.Redundancy within the hardware and network components
D.Database caching
E.Extensive indexing
Answer: ADE

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NO.4 Your company has decided to change the password requirements and force new policies into effect
immediately. As the Administrator, what must you do?
A.Click the Reset All Passwords button on the company Profile, and then modify the password controls.
B.Modify the password controls and distribute new default passwords to all users.
C.Modify the password controls only. Changes take effect with each users next login.
D.Modify the password controls and then click the Reset All Passwords button on the Company Profile.
Answer: D

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NO.5 By default, how are sales quotas tracked in CRM OnDemand?
A.Quotas are tracked on the Sales Quota Dashboard
B.Quotas are tracked on the My Sales Quota Report
C.Quotas are tracked through automatically generated forecasts
D.Quotas are tracked on the Opportunities screen
Answer: C

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NO.6 Siebel CRM OnDemand calculates expected revenue based on the probability associated with the
sales stage and the opportunity revenue. Using the sales stage probabilities below, what is the expected
revenue of a $100,000 opportunity in the Qualified Lead stage?
Qualified Lead = 30%Building Vision = 50%Short List = 70%Negotiation = 90%Closed/Won = 100%
A.$3,000
B.$70,000
C.$30,000
D.$100,000
Answer: C

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NO.7 Your customer is concerned about the Siebel CRM OnDemand environment providing the necessary
security to protect their data. Which of the following can you cite to reassure your customer that Siebel
CRM OnDemand is designed for High Security? Choose three.
A.Reliable high-bandwidth Internet access
B.Single-layer LAN architecture to isolate data
C.128-bit encryption through secure socket layer (SSL)
D.System of Wireless networks providing WiFi access points
E.Anti-virus protection at the server-level
Answer: ACE

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NO.8 Which of the following settings are available to the Administrator for setting sign-in and password
controls? Choose three.
A.Maximum number of sign-in attempts allowed
B.New password must be different from old password checkbox
C.Alpha-numeric password required checkbox
D.Minimum password length requirement
E.Maximum password length requirement
Answer: ABD

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NO.9 The first task in administering a company is verifying and updating the information contained in the
company profile. Where does the company information contained in the company profile initially come
from?
A.Information gathered from the .ini files installed on the users computer
B.Information provided during the initial sign-up for Siebel CRM OnDemand
C.Information provided by the account executive from Siebel
D.There is no information in the company profile before the Administrator updates the profile
Answer: B

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NO.10 What happens if you do not map every field in your source file during an import?
A.You receive a warning message, but can choose to continue without mapping the non-required fields
B.The Next button on the mapping step does not become active until all fields are mapped
C.You do not receive an alert, but no records will get imported into CRM OnDemand
D.You receive an alert, and cannot continue until all required and non-required fields are mapped
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 1Z0-055
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle Database 11g: New Features for 9i OCPs)
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Total Q&A: 150 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-11

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NO.1 You issued the following command:
CREATE GLOBAL TEMPORARY TABLE admin_work_area
(startdate DATE,
enddate DATE,
class CHAR(20))
ON COMMIT DELETE ROWS
TABLESPACE tbs_t1;
An index is then created on the ADMIN_WORK_AREA temporary table.
Which two statements are true regarding the TBS_T1 tablespace in the above command? (Choose two.)
A. It stores only the temporary table but not its indexes.
B. It stores both the temporary table as well as its indexes.
C. It must be a nondefault temporary tablespace for the database.
D. It can be a default or nondefault temporary tablespace for the database.
E. It must be the default temporary tablespace of the user who issues the command.
Answer: BD

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NO.2 Identify the activities performed as part of the Automatic SQL Tuning process in the maintenance
window? (Choose all that apply.)
A. generating the SQL profile
B. testing and accepting the SQL profile
C. generating a list of candidate SQLs for tuning
D. adding tuned SQL plans into the SQL plan baseline
E. tuning each SQL statement in the order of importance
F. generating baselines that include candidate SQL statement for tuning
Answer: ABCE

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NO.3 Examine the following PL/SQL block:
SET SERVEROUTPUT ON
SET LONG 10000
DECLARE report clob;
BEGIN
report := DBMS_SPM.EVOLVE_SQL_PLAN_BASELINE();
DBMS_OUTPUT.PUT_LINE(report);
END;
Which statement describes the effect of the execution of the above PL/SQL block?
A. The plan baselines are verified with the SQL profiles.
B. All fixed plan baselines are converted into nonfixed plan baselines.
C. All the nonaccepted SQL profiles are accepted into the plan baseline.
D. The nonaccepted plans in the SQL Management Base are verified with the existing plan baselines.
Answer: D

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NO.4 View the Exhibit for the object interdependency diagram.
The PRODUCTS table is used to create the PRODCAT_VW view.
PRODCAT_VW is used in the GET_DATA procedure.
GET_DATA is called in the CHECK_DATA function.
A new column PROD_QTY is added to the PRODUCTS table.
How does this impact the status of the dependent objects?
A. All dependent objects remain valid.
B. Only the procedure and function become invalid and must be recompiled.
C. Only the view becomes invalid and gets automatically revalidated the next time it is used.
D. Only the procedure and function become invalid and get automatically revalidated the next time they
are called.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following information will be gathered by the SQL Test Case Builder for the problems
pertaining to SQL-related problems? (Choose all that apply.)
A. ADR diagnostic files
B. all the optimizer statistics
C. initialization parameter settings
D. PL/SQL functions, procedures, and packages
E. the table and index definitions and actual data
Answer: BCE

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NO.6 You performed an incomplete recovery and opened the database with the RESETLOGS option. The
LOG_ARCHIVE_FORMAT parameter is set to 'ora_%t_%s_%r.log'. Which statement regarding the
archived redo log files, created in an earlier incarnation of the database, is true?
A. The archived redo log files will be overwritten.
B. The archived redo log files are deleted automatically.
C. The archived redo log files should be moved to some other location.
D. The archived redo log files are still maintained because the file names are unique.
Answer: D

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NO.7 When executing a SQL workload, you choose to generate execution plans only, without collecting
execution statistics. Which two statements describe the implications of this? (Choose two.)
A. It produces less accurate results of the comparison analysis.
B. It automatically calls the SQL Tuning Advisor for recommendations.
C. It shortens the time of execution and reduces the impact on system resources.
D. Only the changes in the execution plan, and not performance regression, are detected.
Answer: AC

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NO.8 View the Exhibit to examine the details for an incident.
Which statement is true regarding the status of the incident?
A. The DBA is working on the incident and prefers that the incident be kept in the ADR.
B. The incident is now in the Done state and the ADR can select the incident to be purged.
C. The incident has been newly created and is in the process of collecting diagnostic information.
D. The data collection for the incident is complete and the incident can be packaged and sent to Oracle
Support.
Answer: D

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NO.9 While deploying a new application module, the software vendor ships the application software along
with appropriate SQL plan baselines for the new SQLs being introduced. Which two statements describe
the consequences? (Choose two.)
A. The plan baselines can be evolved over time to produce better performance.
B. The newly generated plans are directly placed into the SQL plan baseline without being verified.
C. The new SQL statements initially run with the plans that are known to produce good performance
under standard test configuration.
D. The optimizer does not generate new plans for the SQL statements for which the SQL plan baseline
has been imported.
Answer: AC

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NO.10 Which are the prerequisites for performing flashback transactions on your database? (Choose all that
apply.)
A. Supplemental log must be enabled.
B. Supplemental log must be enabled for the primary key.
C. Undo retention guarantee for the database must be configured.
D. Execute permission on the DBMS_FLASHBACK package must be granted to the user.
Answer: ABD

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NO.11 An online tablespace, TEST_TBS, is full and you realize that no server-managed tablespace
threshold alerts were generated for the TEST_TBS tablespace. What could be the reason, if the
TEST_TBS tablespace does not include autoextensible data files?
A. TEST_TBS is a small file tablespace.
B. TEST_TBS is a bigfile tablespace (BFT).
C. TEST_TBS is the default temporary tablespace.
D. TEST_TBS is a dictionary-managed tablespace.
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which setting enables the baselines by default in Oracle Database 11g?
A. setting the STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter to TYPICAL
B. adding filters to the Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM)
C. enabling Automated Maintenance Task using Oracle Enterprise Manager
D. setting the OPTIMIZER_USE_PENDING_STATISTICS parameter to TRUE
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which two statements are true with respect to the maintenance window? (Choose two.)
A. A DBA can enable or disable an individual task in all maintenance windows.
B. A DBA cannot change the duration of the maintenance window after it is created.
C. In case of a long maintenance window, all Automated Maintenance Tasks are restarted every four
hours.
D. A DBA can control the percentage of the resource allocated to the Automated Maintenance Tasks in
each window.
Answer: AD

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NO.14 In your database, the RESULT_CACHE_MODE parameter has been set to MANUAL in the
initialization parameter file.
You issued the following command:
SQL>SELECT /*+ RESULT_CACHE */ sale_category, sum(sale_amt)
FROM sales
GROUP BY sale_category;
Where would the result of this query be stored?
A. PGA
B. large pool
C. shared pool
D. database buffer cache
Answer: C

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NO.15 You want to convert your existing non-ASM files to ASM files for the database PROD. Which method or
command would you use to accomplish this task?
A. Data Pump Export and Import
B. conventional export and import
C. the CONVERT command of RMAN
D. the BACKUP AS COPY.. command of RMAN
Answer: D

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NO.16 View the Exhibit exhibit1.
In the CUSTOMERS_OBE table, when the value of CUST_STATE_PROVINCE is "CA", the value of
COUNTRY_ID is "US"
View the Exhibit exhibit2 to examine the commands and query plans.
The optimizer can sense 8 rows instead of 29 rows, which is the actual number of rows in the table. What
can you do to make the optimizer detect the actual selectivity?
A. Set the STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter to TYPICAL.
B. Change the STALE_PERCENT value for the CUSTOMERS_OBE table.
C. Set the OPTIMIZER_USE_PENDING_STATISTICS parameter to FALSE.
D. Create extended statistics for the CUST_STATE_PROVINCE and COUNTRY_ID columns.
Answer: D

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NO.17 View the Exhibit to examine the error during the database startup.
You open an RMAN session for the database instance. To repair the failure, you executed the following as
the first command in the RMAN session:
RMAN> REPAIR FAILURE;
Which statement describes the consequence of the command?
A. The command performs the recovery and closes the failures.
B. The command only displays the advice and the RMAN script required for repair.
C. The command produces an error because the ADVISE FAILURE command has not been executed
before the REPAIR FAILURE command.
D. The command executes the RMAN script to repair the failure and removes the entry from the
Automatic Diagnostic Repository (ADR).
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which method would you use to undo the changes made by a particular transaction without affecting
the changes made by other transactions?
A. point-in-time recovery
B. execute the ROLLBACK command with transaction number
C. flashback the database to before the transaction was committed
D. determine all the necessary undo SQL statements from FLASHBACK_TRANSACTION_QUERY and
use them for recovery
Answer: D

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NO.19 While performing the backup of the flash recovery area, you notice that one of the archived redo log
files is missing. You have multiple destinations for archived redo log files. What implications does it have
on the backup of the flash recovery area?
A. The backup succeeds but it would be without the missing archived log.
B. The backup fails because one of the archived redo log files is missing.
C. The backup succeeds because it fails over to one of the alternative archived redo log destinations.
D. During backup, you are prompted for the alternative destination for the missing archived redo log file.
Answer: C

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NO.20 Your system has been upgraded from Oracle Database 10g to Oracle Database 11g. You imported
SQL Tuning Sets (STS) from the previous version. After changing the OPTIMIZER_FEATURE_ENABLE
parameter to 10.2.0.4 and running the SQL Performance Analyzer, you observed performance regression
for a few SQL statements. What would you do with these SQL statements?
A. Set OPTIMIZER_USE_PLAN_BASELINES to FALSE to prevent the use of regressed plans.
B. Capture the plans from the previous version using STS and then load them into the stored outline.
C. Capture the plans from the previous version using STS and then load them into SQL Management
Base (SMB).
D. Set OPTIMIZER_CAPTURE_SQL_PLAN_BASELINES to FALSE to prevent the plans from being
loaded to the SQL plan baseline.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 1Z0-026
Exam Name: Oracle (Network Administration)
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Total Q&A: 128 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-11

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NO.1 Which feature needs to be configured in Connection Manager to enable your system to
scale to a large number of users?
A. Connection Pooling
B. Network access control
C. Connection concentration
D. Multiple protocol interchange
Answer: C

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NO.2 How many response queues are present in a multithreaded server environment?
A. One per system.
B. One per database.
C. One per listener.
D. One per dispatcher.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which are two features of Connection Manager? (Choose two)
A. Connection exchange.
B. Connection resolution.
C. Connection multiplexing.
D. Connection cross-linking.
E. Protocol transformation.
F. Protocol interchange capability.
Answer: C, F

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NO.4 Which parameter specifies the maximum number of server processes that get
pre-spawned in a dedicated server environment? (Do not use any extra words or
characters)
Answer: MTS_MAX_SERVERS

NO.5 You are using host naming. Which components need to be installed?
A. Net8 on the server and the client machine.
B. TCP/IP and Net8 only on the client machine.
C. TCP/IP and Net8 only on the server machine.
D. TCP/IP and Net8 on the server and the client machine.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which statement regarding the logging and tracing of Net8 is True?
A. Logging cannot be disabled on client.
B. There are four levels of logging that can be set.
C. Tracing can take up significant disk space but has little impact on performance.
D. There is no way to prevent new trace data from being appended to the same file with
each new session.
Answer: B

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NO.7 You setup MTS for the PROD database, which uses multiple listeners to handle
requests. Which listener control command can you issue for each listener that the
dispatchers have registered with all listeners used by the database?
A. DISPATCHER<listener name>
B. SHOW ALL
C. SERVICES<listener name>
D. SHOW SERVICES<listener name>
E. SHOW DISPATCHER<listener name>
Answer: C

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NO.8 When is the request sent to a listener?
A. After every call.
B. Before every call.
C. After name resolution.
D. Before name resolution.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which folder would you use in the Net8 Assistant Tool to change the naming
method?
A. Profile
B. Configuration
C. Service Names
D. Oracle Names Server
Answer: A

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NO.10 In which file is the information that host naming is enabled stored?
A. Init.ora
B. Sqlnet.ora
C. Tnsnames.ora
D. Listener.ora
Answer: B

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NO.11 The listener audit trail provides information about every client connection request.
Which additional request about the client is NOT provided?
A. Client user ID
B. Database user name
C. Network protocol
D. Client host (platform)
Answer: B

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NO.12 The initial number of dispatchers is set to 50. Because of the load on the dispatcher
processes the DBA needs to decrease the number of dispatchers. Which two
recommended procedures could be used? (Choose two)
A. Issue the ALTER SYSTEM command to remove dispatchers.
B. Issue the ALTER SESSION command to remove dispatchers.
C. Edit the MTS_DISPATCHERS parameter and bounce the database.
D. Edit the MTS_MAX_DISPATCHERS parameter and bounce the database.
E. Edit the MTS_MIN_DISPATCHERS parameter and bounce the database.
Answer: A, C

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NO.13 Which naming method simplifies administrative tasks when configuration changes
need to be made available to all clients immediately?
A. Host Naming
B. Local Naming
C. Service Naming
D. Centralized Naming
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which two are tasks of the dispatcher process? (Choose two)
A. Receiving connection requests.
B. Placing a request in the request queue.
C. Updating the listener with new LOAD values.
D. Determining if the client request can be processed.
Answer: B, C

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NO.15 When configuring for multiple protocol interchange, what does Source_Route
indicate?
A. Enables connections through Connection Manager.
B. Identifies the service name to which the connection needs to be established.
C. Identifies the database SID to which the connection needs to be established.
D. Identifies the node and the port number on which connection manager is running.
Answer: A

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NO.16 A DBA has installed and configured Net8 TCP/IP on the client and the server but is
still unable to connect from Windows NT Workstation using SQL*Plus to an Oracle
instance running on a remote UNIX server. However there are no problems when
using FTP between two nodes. What actions next taken by the DBA could make
progress towards diagnosing the problem?
A. Attempting to PING the server from the client.
B. Checking to see if the DNS configuration is correct.
C. Connecting by using the Net8 Assistant Test Connection feature.
D. Checking to see if the TNS ping process is running on the server.
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which NAMESCTL command can be used to manually force Names Server discovery?
A. Flush
B. Reload
C. Reorder_NS
D. Discover_NS
E. Start_client_cache
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which process picks up a request from a response queue?
A. Client process
B. Listener process
C. Dispatcher process
D. Shared server process
Answer: C

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NO.19 If a password is configured, which command must be issued first when you need to
stop the listener?
A. Stop
B. Password
C. Set Password
D. Shutdown immediate
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which statement is true regarding connection breaks?
A. In-band breaks are faster than out-band breaks.
B. In-band breaks use messages that invoke operating system signals.
C. In-band breaks are issued to the server process by the operating system.
D. Out-band breaks send urgent data messages and are faster than in-band breaks.
E. There are no fundamental differences between in-band breaks and out-band breaks.
Answer: D

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