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Exam Code: 1Z1-456
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle Fusion Customer Relationship Management 11g Sales Essentials)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 132 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which three objectives are achieved by a spread formula?
A. Calculate the distribution of an amount among selected child territories regardless
of the metrics
B. Spread the variance between the parent territory quota and the sum of child
territory quotas to the child territories.
C. Calculate the ratios to use for the child territories through the use of the metric
defined.
D. Equally distribute quota from the parent territory to child territories.
E. Distribute quota only to the parent territory.
Answer: B, C, D

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NO.2 While configuring the Assignment Manager, you activate and create assignment
mappings involving Geography ID, Industry and Customer Size. After an Internal
review, your company decides to no longer base decisions on industry. Your
supervisor asks a coworker to remove any industry considerations from the Fusion
Assignment Manager. Your coworker does this by navigating to Industry and
selecting the Inactive check box, but forgets to modify the existing mappings that
already use Industry. Select the expected system behavior based on this scenario.
A. The existing assignment mapping that uses Industry would continue to function;
however no new assignment mapping could use Industry.
B. The existing assignment mapping that uses Industry would continue to function,
but the concept of Industry would be automatically removed. The rule would
continue on all other criteria.
C. Any assignment mapping that uses Industry would be automatically deleted.
D. Any time the existing mapping is used. Fusion will automatically create a
resolution request. E. This can't be done; assignment objects can’t be set to inactive
if there is a mapping defined using the object
Answer: E

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NO.3 Select the three statements that describe the use of sales methodology in opportunity
management.
A. Selection of sales methodology is mandatory for every opportunity.
B. Sales methodologies consist of one or more sales stages.
C. Selection of sales methodology is optional for an opportunity.
D. Sales methodologiesbest describe an organization's sales process
E. Sales methodologies include sales stages; each sales stage can be tied to a range
of win probability and status.
Answer: B, E

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NO.4 A territory manager has created a proposal. When the proposal is validated, it can
create active territories. Identify a condition that would result in an error during the
validation process in Oracle Fusion Sales.
A. Parent territory covers all the dimensions of its child territories.
B. Active resources were added as dimension members.
C. Parent territory does not cover all the dimensions of its child territories.
D. A valid product has been added as a dimension member.
E. Partner sales representatives were added to child territories.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Identify two components of sales coach that can assist in bringing opportunities to a
successful close.
A. recommended documents
B. process steps
C. stalled deal limit
D. task
E. opportunity status
Answer: A, B

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Exam Code: 1Z0-807
Exam Name: Oracle (Java Enterprise Edition 6 Enterprise Architect Certified Master Exam (Step 1 of 3))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 90 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 You are the architect at ACME, a large a large global retailer of festival and holiday accessories.
ACME wants to launch a new shopping portal for the holiday shopping session, allowing two
months from project inception to going live. The portal must contain in-house and third-party stock
to attack customers.
Fast response times are also critical so users remain engaged and sticky to the portal.
What would you recommend to the ACME project team to deliver this project?
A. Access all third party content using JSONP to dynamically load it from the browser.
B. Access as much content with bulk-loading as possible; use JSONP to access the remainder.
C. Access all content regardless of source using the HTML 5 XML parsing capabilities of the
browser
D. Access all third party content using JSON to dynamically load it from the browser.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Your company is creating a Java EE corporate wide workflow system in winch significant
internal
business events are consumed by multiple applications. Due to multi-year development plans,
many of these applications do not exist yet, even at the design stage. IT has defined standard data
formats for these events in the form of small XML documents. Also, the rules for how an
application filters and processes events are not fixed In advance and can change over the life or
the application.
Which combination of technologies is best for distributing and consuming these events throughout
the company?
A. Relational database and JDBC
B. HTTP client library and servlets
C. Remote Method Invocation (RMI) and stateless session beans
D. Java Message Service (JMS) topics and message-driven beans
E. JMS queues and message-driven beans
Answer: D

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NO.3 You are the operations architect for a large online retailer. During peak times, your set of
monitored applications exhibits non-reproducible errors. The data center is growing at 50% per
annum, while your team headcount remains constant.
Which method would you use to implement an affective monitoring strategy?
A. Use the Visitor pattern to collect per-JVM statistics and store them centrally.
B. Use the Strategy pattern to encapsulate collection logic for each JVM.
C. Use the Thread Tracker to monitor the JVMs directly.
D. Use the Observer pattern to monitor each JVM directly.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which two statements are true about security strategies at the message level?
A. Messages are secured during transport and after arrival at their destination
B. Each portion of a compound message is secured.
C. SSL is required to ensure authenticity, integrity, and confidentiality.
D. Message attachments are secured without the need for a dedicated API.
E. Security is dependent on the application environment or the transport protocol.
Answer: C,E

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NO.5 Your CMC wants to move several web based search applications to an AJAX model, hoping to
improve user engagement with a browser experience that feels smaller and more responsive.
Which identifies a drawback to consider when adopting an AJAX model to improve user
experience?
A. Maintaining current performance could require more hardware.
B. Maintaining accessibility across clients may require more development.
C. Maintaining security within the page could be more difficult.
D. Maintaining page navigability for users would have to be re-evaluated.
E. Maintaining a scalable system could require redesigning applications.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which two statements are true about transport-layer security?
A. It applies to both a message body and its attachments.
B. It is loosely coupled with the transport-layer protocol.
C. It is an end-to-end security mechanism.
D. It prevents the captured data from being replayed at a later time.
Answer: A,D

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NO.7 Your company provides a marketplace for industrial chemicals. You are required to offer
accurate
pricing and quantities to all marketplace users.
Marketplace users are globally distributed.
What is the most appropriate technology to use to satisfy this requirement?
A. Server-side distribution using JAX-WS
B. Client-side polling using JAX-RPC
C. Web services using REST
D. An enterprise messaging system
Answer: C

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NO.8 A successful web application is used by over two hundred thousand users. Due to this
substantial
load, the database is over bridged and fails frequently. All data, included critical user records and
temporary session data, is stored in the database. Because of resource constraints, a new
database system cannot be installed.
Which change will reduce the load on the database?
A. Creating more entity beans to optimize interaction wild the database
B. Refactoring the web application to use DAOs to communicate with the database
C. Refactoring the web application to store temporary session data on the web servers
D. Adding more web servers to the web tier to distribute the load and reduce the number of
transactions on the database.
Answer: C

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NO.9 You are consulting with a team that has maintained several legacy database for years. They
have
reviewed the JPA spec and are wondering if the technology would offer benefits over this current
SQL base.
Which statement identifies a risk of adopting JPA?
A. JPA only works with well-known data models.
B. JPA may be able to model every table as a class.
C. JPA could render code that requires extensive SQL tuning to perform well.
D. JPA’s query language relies on a container to manage the persistence layer.
E. JPA doesn’t provides ACID semantics.
Answer: D

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NO.10 You are the architect of a web application that uses javaServer Faces (JSF) as a presentation
tier
for business processes coded as stateless session beans. When you add new code to the
stateless session beans to address new accounting requirements, without changing the interface,
you discover that the new business processes are being ignored by some of the JSF components.
What might be the cause of this problem?
A. The presentation tier is relying on validation logic in the business tier.
B. The browser is caching out-of-date versions of the JSF components.
C. The business processes are not rigorously encapsulated in the session beans.
D. The new session beans have been deployed incorrectly, and proper deployment will resolve the
problem.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 1Z1-466
Exam Name: Oracle (Project Lifecycle Management Essentials)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 98 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 At the end of iteration phase, during Project Execution and Control, which three key tasks
should be conducted?
A. QM.050 Perform Quality Assurance
B. WM.050 ManageApprovals
C. CMM.030 Manage Project Team Communication
D. PKM.020 Conduct Baseline Risk Assessment
E. SM.060 Close Scope management
F. PKM.060 Conduct Post-Production Risk Assessment
G. OCHM.040 Establish Follow-Up process
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.2 Tasks in the Project Execution and Control phase are ongoing. How often they are executed?
A. In each iteration
B. Three times
C. Five times
D. At the beginning of each week
E. As needed
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which is the type of closure described as the mechanical an analytical step associated with the
closure of a project or phase?
A. Contractual
B. Typical
C. Intra-business
D. Conventional
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which is true about OUM Manage?
A. It emphasizes clearly documenting the scope of the project and the exact procedures to
implement changes to this scope.
B. It is not possible to control the project timeline without a detailed project plan.
C. It is necessary to only document the items in the scope.
D. If the project sponsor requires a functional change, the project team must comply with the
request.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
The Manage focus area is organized into 13 processes: Bid Transition (A)Scope Management
Financial Management
Work Management Risk Management Issue and Problem Management Staff Management
Communication Management Quality Management Configuration Management Infrastructure
Management Procurement Management Organizational Change Management
Collectively, these processes form a comprehensive set of tasks required to manage Oracle-based
development and implementation projects. Every project includes most, if not all, of these
processes, whether they are the responsibility of a consulting organization, a client organization, or
a third party.

NO.5 Select the three key project roles as prescribed by OUM Manage.
A. Stakeholder
B. Change Control Board
C. Issue Review Board
D. Project Team
E. Testing Committee
Answer: A,B,D

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Explanation:
A:Project managers use OUM to make sure they and their stakeholders develop a shared
understanding of what is needed, choose an appropriate architecture, and transfer the ownership of
the end-product to the stakeholders.
B:CCB(Change Control Board)is a review committee that discusses and approves requests for
changes to On Demand customer system configurations. The change requests are fulfilled in the
following ways:
A work guideline is generated by engineering for operations to use and implement.
The changes are included in Oracle Certified Configurations.
D:Project teams to take advantage of this experience by

NO.6 What is not true about planning in OUM?
A. OUM has been developed with the intent that the approach for a given project be built up from a
core set of activities.
B. Projects should be tailored down from the full OUM work breakdown structures.
C. OUM takes an iterative and incremental approach to planning a project.
D. Tasks within OUM are considered place holders for work.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
Incorrect: Not A:OUM is designed to support a broad range of project types. As such, it must be
flexible andscalable. The appropriate point of balance for a given project will vary based on a
number of project risk and scale factors. The method has been developed with the intent that the
approach for a given project be "built up" from a core set of activities to implement an appropriate
level of discipline, rather than "tailored down".
Not C:OUM recognizes the advantages of an iterative and incremental approach to development
and deployment of information systems. Any of the tasks within OUM may be iterated. Whether or
not to iterate, as well as the number of iterations, varies. Tasks may be iterated to increase quality of
the work products to a desired level, to add sufficient level of detail, or to refine and expand the
work products on the basis of user feedback.

NO.7 According to the recommended training for this exam, what is the definition of a project?
A. A sequence of tasks with a beginning and an end, bound by time, responses, and desired results
B. Anything for which there is an executed contact
C. A sequence of tasks for there is a Statement work
D. A sequence of tasks with a specified end date
Answer: A

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NO.8 What describes the nature of the activities within the Project Execution and Control phase?
A. They are dependent upon one another.
B. They are dependent upon earned value.
C. They are ongoing.
D. They are grouped according to priority.
Answer: A

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NO.9 What is not true about risk management in OUM Manage?
A. The project manager should regularly conduct risk assessments.
B. Risks become even more critical during the Project Execution and Control Phase.
C. Particular attention should be paid to risks prior to production cutover.
D. If a baseline risk assessment is done during the Project Startup phase, there are no further risk
assessment required on the project.
Answer: D

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Exam Name: Oracle (Upgrade to Oracle Database 12c)
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Total Q&A: 150 Questions and Answers
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NO.1 Open the database with RESETLOGS.

NO.2 Your multitenant container database, CDB1, is running in ARCHIVELOG mode and has two
pluggable databases, HR_PDB and ACCOUNTS_PDB. An RMAN backup exists for the database.
You issue the command to open ACCOUNTS_PDB and find that the USERDATA.DBF data file for the
default permanent tablespace USERDATA belonging to ACCOUNTS_PDB is corrupted.
What should you do before executing the commands to restore and recover the data file in
ACCOUNTS_PDB?
A. Place CDB1 in the mount stage and then the USERDATA tablespace offline in ACCOUNTS_PDB.
B. Place CDB1 in the mount stage and issue the ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE accounts_pdb CLOSE
IMMEDIATE command.
C. Issue the ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE accounts_pdb RESTRICTED command.
D. Take the USERDATA tablespace offlineinACCOUNTS_PDB.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
*You can take an online tablespace offline so that it is temporarily unavailable for general use. The
rest of the database remains open and available for users to access data. Conversely, you can bring
an offline tablespace online to make the schema objects within the tablespace available to database
users. The database must be open to alter the availability of a tablespace.

NO.3 In your multitenant container database (CDB) containing pluggable databases (PDB), users
complain about performance degradation.
How does real-time Automatic database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) check performance
degradation and provide solutions?
A. It collects data from SGA and compares it with a preserved snapshot.
B. It collects data from SGA, analyzes it, and provides a report.
C. It collects data from SGA and compares it with the latest snapshot.
D. It collects data from both SGA and PGA, analyzes it, and provides a report.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Note: *The multitenant architecture enables an Oracle database to function as a multitenant
container database (CDB) that includes zero, one, or many customer-created pluggable databases
(PDBs). A PDB is a portable collection of schemas, schema objects, and nonschema objects that
appears to an Oracle Net client as a non-CDB. All Oracle databases before Oracle Database 12c were
non-CDBs. *The System Global Area (SGA) is a group of shared memory areas that are dedicated to
an Oracle "instance" (an instance is your database programs and RAM).
*The PGA (Program or Process Global Area) is a memory area (RAM) that stores data and control
information for a single process.

NO.4 Which two statements are true about the use of the procedures listed in the
v$sysaux_occupants.move_procedure column?
A. The procedure may be used for some components to relocate component data to the SYSAUX
tablespace from its current tablespace.
B. The procedure may be used for some components to relocate component data from the SYSAUX
tablespace to another tablespace.
C. All the components may be moved into SYSAUX tablespace.
D. All the components may be moved from the SYSAUX tablespace.
Answer: B,D

Oracle   1Z0-060   1Z0-060 answers real questions
Explanation:
V$SYSAUX_OCCUPANTS displays SYSAUX tablespace occupant information.
MOVE_PROCEDURE:Name of the move procedure; null if not applicable
For example, the tables and indexes that were previously owned by the system user can now be
specified for a SYSAUX tablespace. You can query the v$sysaux_occupants view to find the exact
components stored within the SYSAUX tablespace.

NO.5 Your multitenant container (CDB) contains two pluggable databases(PDB), HR_PDB and
ACCOUNTS_PDB, both of which use the CDB tablespace. The temp file is called temp01.tmp.
A user issues a query on a table on one of the PDBs and receives the following error:
ERROR at line 1:
ORA-01565: error in identifying file '/u01 /app/oracle/oradata/CDB1 /temp01.tmp'
ORA-27037: unable to obtain file status
Identify two ways to rectify the error.
A. Add a new temp file to the temporary tablespace and drop the temp file that that produced the
error.
B. Shut down the database instance, restore the temp01.tmp file from the backup, and then restart
the database.
C. Take the temporary tablespace offline, recover the missing temp file by applying redo logs, and
then bring the temporary tablespace online.
D. Shutdown the database instance, restore and recover the temp file from the backup, and then
open the database with RESETLOGS.
E. Shut down the database instance and then restart the CDB and PDBs.
Answer: C,E

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Explanation:
* Because temp files cannot be backed up and because no redo is ever generated for them, RMAN
never restores or recovers temp files. RMAN does track the names of temp files, but only so that it
can automatically re-create them when needed.
*If you use RMAN in a Data Guard environment, then RMAN transparently converts primary control
files to standby control files and vice versa. RMAN automatically updates file names for data files,
online redo logs, standby redo logs, and temp files when you issue RESTORE and RECOVER.

NO.6 Your multitenant container (CDB) containing three pluggable databases (PDBs) is running in
ARCHIVELOG mode. You find that the SYSAUX tablespace is corrupted in the root container.
The steps to recover the tablespace are as follows:
1.Mount the CDB.
2.Close all the PDBs.
3.Open the database.
4.Apply the archive redo logs.
5.Restore the data file.
6.Take the SYSAUX tablespace offline.
7.Place the SYSAUX tablespace offline.
8.Open all the PDBs with RESETLOGS.

NO.7 Execute the command SHUTDOWN ABORT.
Which option identifies the correct sequence to recover the SYSAUX tablespace?
A. 6, 5, 4, 7
B. 10, 1, 2, 5, 8
C. 10, 1, 2, 5, 4, 9, 8
D. 10, 1, 5, 8, 10
Answer: C

Oracle original questions   1Z0-060   1Z0-060   1Z0-060   1Z0-060 certification training
Explanation:
* Example:
While evaluating the 12c beta3 I was not able to do the recover while testing "all pdb files
lost".
Cannot close the pdb as the system datafile was missing...
So only option to recover was:
Shutdown cdb(10)
startup mount;(1)
restore pluggable database
recover pluggable databsae
alter database open;
alter pluggable database name open;
Oracle support says: You should be able to close the pdb and restore/recover the system
tablespace of PDB.
*Open the database with the RESETLOGS option after finishing recovery: SQL> ALTER DATABASE
OPEN RESETLOGS;
9. Which three are direct benefits of the multiprocess, multithreaded architecture of Oracle
Database 12c when it is enabled?
A. Reduced logical I/O
B. Reduced virtual memory utilization
C. Improved parallel Execution performance
D. Improved Serial Execution performance
E. Reduced physical I/O
F. Reduced CPU utilization
Answer: C

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Explanation:
*Multiprocess and Multithreaded Oracle Database Systems
Multiprocess Oracle Database (also called multiuser Oracle Database) uses several processes to run
different parts of the Oracle Database code and additional Oracle processes for the users-either one
process for each connected user or one or more processes shared by multiple users. Most databases
are multiuser because a primary advantage of a database is managing data needed by multiple
users simultaneously.
Each process in a database instance performs a specific job. By dividing the work of the database
and applications into several processes, multiple users and applications can connect to an instance
simultaneously while the system gives good performance.
*In previous releases, Oracle processes did not run as threads on UNIX and Linux systems. Starting
in Oracle Database 12c, the multithreaded Oracle Database model enables Oracle processes to
execute as operating system threads in separate address spaces.
10. In order to exploit some new storage tiers that have been provisioned by a storage
administrator, the partitions of a large heap table must be moved to other tablespaces in your
Oracle 12c database?
Both local and global partitioned B-tree Indexes are defined on the table.
A high volume of transactions access the table during the day and a medium volume of transactions
access it at night and during weekends.
Minimal disrupt ion to availability is required.
Which three statements are true about this requirement?
A. The partitions can be moved online to new tablespaces.
B. Global indexes must be rebuilt manually after moving the partitions.
C. The partitions can be compressed in the same tablespaces.
D. The partitions can be compressed in the new tablespaces.
E. Local indexes must be rebuilt manually after moving the partitions.
Answer: A,B,D

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Explanation:
A:You can create and rebuild indexes online. Therefore, you can update base tables at the same
time you are building or rebuilding indexes on that table. You can perform DML operations while
the index build is taking place, but DDL operations are not allowed. Parallel execution is not
supported when creating or rebuilding an index online.
B: Note: *Transporting and Attaching Partitions for Data Warehousing Typical enterprise data
warehouses contain one or more large fact tables. These fact tables can be partitioned by date,
making the enterprise data warehouse a historical database. You can build indexes to speed up star
queries. Oracle recommends that you build local indexes for such historically partitioned tables to
avoid rebuilding global indexes every time you drop the oldest partition from the historical database.
D:Moving (Rebuilding) Index-Organized Tables Because index-organized tables are primarily stored
in a B-tree index, you can encounter fragmentation as a consequence of incremental updates.
However, you can use the ALTER TABLE...MOVE statement to rebuild the index and reduce this
fragmentation.

NO.8 You notice that the performance of your production 24 /7 Oracle database significantly
degraded. Sometimes you are not able to connect to the instance because it hangs. You do not want
to restart the database instance.
How can you detect the cause of the degraded performance?
A. Enable Memory Access Mode, which reads performance data from SGA.
B. Use emergency monitoring to fetch data directly from SGA analysis.
C. Run Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) to fetch information from the latest
Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) snapshots.
D. Use Active Session History (ASH) data and hang analysis in regular performance monitoring.
E. Run ADDM in diagnostic mode.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
*In most cases, ADDM output should be the first place that a DBA looks when notified of a
performance problem. *Performance degradation of the database occurs when your database was
performing optimally in the past, such as 6 months ago, but has gradually degraded to a point
where it becomes noticeable to the users. The Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) Compare
Periods report enables you to compare database performance between two periods of time.
While an AWR report shows AWR data between two snapshots (or two points in time), the AWR
Compare Periods report shows the difference between two periods (or two AWR reports with a
total of four snapshots). Using the AWR Compare Periods report helps you to identify detailed
performance attributes and configuration settings that differ between two time periods.
Reference:Resolving Performance Degradation Over Time

NO.9 Examine the followingcommands forredefininga table withVirtual Private Database(VPD)
policies:
Which two statements are true about redefining the table?
A. All the triggers for the table are disabled without changing any of the column names or column
types in the table.
B. The primary key constraint on the EMPLOYEES table is disabled during redefinition.
C. VPD policies are copied from the original table to the new table during online redefinition.
D. You must copy the VPD policies manually from the original table to the new table during online
redefinition.
Answer: B,C

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Explanation:
C (not D):CONS_VPD_AUTO Used to indicate to copy VPD policies automatically
*DBMS_RLS.ADD_POLICY /The DBMS_RLS package contains the fine-grained access control
administrative interface, which is used to implement Virtual Private Database (VPD).DBMS_RLS is
available with the Enterprise Edition only.
Note: *CONS_USE_PK and CONS_USE_ROWID are constants used as input to the "options_flag"
parameter in both the START_REDEF_TABLE Procedure and CAN_REDEF_TABLE Procedure.
CONS_USE_ROWID is used to indicate that the redefinition should be done using rowids while
CONS_USE_PK implies that the redefinition should be done using primary keys or pseudo-primary
keys (which are unique keys with all component columns having NOT NULL constraints).
*DBMS_REDEFINITION.START_REDEF_TABLE
To achieve online redefinition, incrementally maintainable local materialized views are used. These
logs keep track of the changes to the master tables and are used by the materialized views during
refresh synchronization.
*START_REDEF_TABLE Procedure Prior to calling this procedure, you must manually create an empty
interim table (in the same schema as the table to be redefined) with the desired attributes of the
post-redefinition table, and then call this procedure to initiate the redefinition.

NO.10 Which Oracle Database component is audited by default if the unified Auditing option is
enabled?
A. Oracle Data Pump
B. Oracle Recovery Manager (RMAN)
C. Oracle Label Security
D. Oracle Database Vault
E. Oracle Real Application Security
Answer: E

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Explanation:
Type ofUnifiedauditing:
Standard
Fine Grained Audit
XS
Database Vault(not D)
Label Security(not C)
RMAN AUDIT(not B)
Data Pump(not A)
Note:
*Oracle 12c introduces Unified Auditing, which consolidates database audit records
including :-
DDL, DML, DCL
Fine Grained Auditing (DBMS_FGA)
Oracle Database Real Application Security
Oracle Recovery Manager
Oracle Database Vault
Oracle Label Security
Oracle Data Mining
Oracle Data Pump
Oracle SQL*Loader Direct Load

NO.11 You plan to use the In Database Archiving feature of Oracle Database 12c, and store rows that
are inactive for over three months, in Hybrid Columnar Compressed (HCC) format.
Which three storage options support the use of HCC?
A. ASM disk groups with ASM disks consisting of Exadata Grid Disks.
B. ASM disk groups with ASM disks consisting of LUNS on any Storage Area Network array
C. ASM disk groups with ASM disks consisting of any zero padded NFS-mounted files
D. Database files stored in ZFS and accessed using conventional NFS mounts.
E. Database files stored in ZFS and accessed using the Oracle Direct NFS feature
F. Database files stored in any file system and accessed using the Oracle Direct NFS feature
G. ASM disk groups with ASM disks consisting of LUNs on Pillar Axiom Storage arrays
Answer: A,E,G

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Explanation:
HCC requires the use of Oracle Storage - Exadata(A), Pillar Axiom(G)or Sun ZFS Storage Appliance
(ZFSSA).
Note: *Hybrid Columnar Compression, initially only available on Exadata, has been extended to
supportPillar Axiom and Sun ZFS Storage Appliance (ZFSSA) storage when used with Oracle
Database Enterprise Edition 11.2.0.3 and above *Oracle offers the ability to manage NFS using a
feature called Oracle Direct NFS (dNFS). Oracle Direct NFS implements NFS V3 protocol within the
Oracle database kernel itself. Oracle Direct NFS client overcomes many of the challenges associated
with using NFS with the Oracle Database with simple configuration, betterperformance than
traditional NFS clients, and offers consistent configuration across platforms.

NO.12 Which statement is true about Oracle Net Listener?
A. It acts as the listening endpoint for the Oracle database instance for all local and non-local user
connections.
B. A single listener can service only one database instance and multiple remote client connections.
C. Service registration with the listener is performed by the process monitor (PMON) process of
each database instance.
D. The listener.ora configuration file must be configured with one or more listening protocol
addresses to allow remote users to connect to a database instance.
E. The listener.ora configuration file must be located in the ORACLE_HOME/network/admin directly.
Answer: C

Oracle   1Z0-060 exam   1Z0-060
Explanation:
Supported services, that is, the services to which the listener forwards client
requests, can be configured in the listener.ora file or this information can be dynamically
registered with the listener. This dynamic registration feature is called service registration.
The registration is performed by the PMON process-an instance background process-of
each database instance that has the necessary configuration in the database initialization
parameter file. Dynamic service registration does not require any configuration in the
listener.ora file.
Incorrect:
Not B:Service registration reduces the need for the SID_LIST_listener_name parameter
setting, which specifies information about the databases served by the listener, in the
listener.ora file.
Note:
*Oracle Net Listener is a separate process that runs on the database server computer. It
receives incoming client connection requests and manages the traffic of these requests to
the database server.
*A remote listener is a listener residing on one computer that redirects connections to a
database instance on another computer. Remote listeners are typically used in an Oracle
Real Application Clusters (Oracle RAC) environment. You can configure registration to
remote listeners, such as in the case of Oracle RAC, for dedicated server or shared server
environments.

NO.13 Which three are true about the large poolfor anOracle database instance that supports
shared server connections?
A. Allocates memory for RMAN backup and restore operations
B. Allocates memory for shared and private SQL areas
C. Contains a cursor area for storing runtime information about cursors
D. Contains stack space
E. Contains a hash area performing hash joins of tables
Answer: A,B,C

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Explanation:
The large pool can provide large memory allocations for the following:
/(B)UGA(User Global Area)for the shared server and the Oracle XA interface (used where
transactions interact with multiple databases)
/Message buffers used in the parallel execution of statements
/(A)Buffers for Recovery Manager (RMAN) I/O slaves
Note:
*large pool
Optional area in the SGA that provides large memory allocations for backup and restore
operations, I/O server processes, and session memory for the shared server and Oracle
XA.
*Oracle XA
An external interface that allows global transactions to be coordinated by a transaction
manager other than Oracle Database.
*UGA
User global area. Session memory that stores session variables, such as logon
information, and can also contain the OLAP pool.
*Configuring the Large Pool
Unlike the shared pool, the large pool does not have an LRU list(not D). Oracle Database
does not attempt to age objects out of the large pool. Consider configuring a large pool if
the database instance uses any of the following Oracle Database features:
*Shared server
In a shared server architecture, the session memory for each client process is included in
the shared pool.
*Parallel query
Parallel query uses shared pool memory to cache parallel execution message buffers.
*Recovery Manager
Recovery Manager (RMAN) uses the shared pool to cache I/O buffers during backup and restore
operations. For I/O server processes, backup, and restore operations, Oracle Database allocates
buffers that are a few hundred kilobytes in size.

NO.14 What are three purposes of the RMAN "FROM" clause?
A. to support PUSH-based active database duplication
B. to support synchronization of a standby database with the primary database in a Data
environment
C. To support PULL-based active database duplication
D. To support file restores over the network in a Data Guard environment
E. To support file recovery over the network in a Data Guard environment
Answer: B,C,E

Oracle   1Z0-060 study guide   1Z0-060 exam prep   1Z0-060 exam
Explanation:
E:
*With a control file autobackup, RMAN can recover the database even if the current
control file, recovery catalog, and server parameter file are inaccessible.
*RMAN uses a recovery catalog to track filenames for all database files in a Data Guard
environment. A recovery catalog is a database schema used by RMAN to store metadata
about one or more Oracle databases. The catalog also records where the online redo logs,
standby redo logs, tempfiles, archived redo logs, backup sets, and image copies are
created.

NO.15 You are administering a database stored in Automatic Storage Management (ASM). You
use RMAN to back up the database and the MD_BACKUP command to back up the ASM metadata
regularly. You lost an ASM disk group DG1 due to hardware failure.
In which three ways can you re-create the lost disk group and restore the data?
A. Use the MD_RESTORE command to restore metadata for an existing disk group by passing the
existing disk group name as an input parameter and use RMAN to restore the data.
B. Use the MKDG command to restore the disk group with the same configuration as the backed-up
disk group and data on the disk group.
C. Use the MD_RESTORE command to restore the disk group with the changed disk group
specification, failure group specification, name, and other attributes and use RMAN to restore the
data.
D. Use the MKDG command to restore the disk group with the same configuration as the backed-up
disk group name and same set of disks and failure group configuration, and use RMAN to restore
the data.
E. Use the MD_RESTORE command to restore both the metadata and data for the failed disk group.
F. Use the MKDG command to add a new disk group DG1 with the same or different specifications
for failure group and other attributes and use RMAN to restore the data.
Answer: C,E,F

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Explanation:
Note:
*The md_restore command allows you to restore a disk group from the metadata created
by the md_backup command.
/md_restore Command
Purpose
This command restores a disk group backup using various options that are described in
this section.
/In the restore mode md_restore, it re-create the disk group based on the backup file with
all user-defined templates with the exact configuration as the backuped disk group. There
are several options when restore the disk group
full - re-create the disk group with the exact configuration
nodg - Restores metadata in an existing disk group provided as an input parameter
newdg - Change the configuration like failure group, disk group name, etc..
*The MD_BACKUP command creates a backup file containing metadata for one or more
disk groups. By default all the mounted disk groups are included in the backup file which is
saved in the current working directory. If the name of the backup file is not specified, ASM names
the file AMBR_BACKUP_INTERMEDIATE_FILE.

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NO.1 What is true about a comment in UML 2.0? (Choose two)
A. is shown as a note symbol
B. must be attached to at most one element
C. contains only machine-readable symbols
D. can be attached to more than one element
E. connections are always shown with a dashed line
Answer: AD

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NO.2 What is true of the black diamond on the diagram? (Choose two)
A. A Line Item cannot be removed from its Order.
B. A Line Item may only be included in one Order at a time.
C. If an Order is deleted, its Line Item instances normally still remain.
D. If an Order is deleted, its Line Item instances are normally deleted.
E. A Line Item may only be included in more than one Order at a time.
Answer: BD

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NO.3 What is an expression in UML 2.0?
A. comment placed on a diagram
B. symbol or symbols signifying a set of value
C. graphical addition to a diagramming element
D. language-specific string used to describe the meaning of a diagram
E. language-specific text string used to describe the contents of a diagram
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is a relationship in UML 2.0?
A. the state of being related
B. an element that has no derived union
C. an element that has no derived composition
D. an element that must have two owned elements
E. an element that specifies a connection between elements
Answer: E

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NO.5 What does it mean when a classifier rectangle is labeled as an <<enumeration>>?
A. The list of all public and private features is provided.
B. The classifier is an iterator for traversing a collection.
C. The list of all public and private structural features is suppressed.
D. The classifier is a data type whose values are possibly listed in the bottom compartment.
Answer: D

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NO.6 What is the meaning of the subsets constraint in the diagram?
A. D is a subclass of B.
B. D contains a subset of instances of C.
C. The collection of b is a subset of the collection of d for each A.
D. The collection of d is a subset of the collection of b for each C.
E. The collection of c is a subset of the collection of b for each D.
Answer: D

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NO.7 What is true of the import example in the exhibit?
A. Webshop is imported into ShoppingCart and then further imported into Auxiliary and Types.
B. Auxiliary and Types are imported into ShoppingCart, but neither can be further imported into WebShop.
C. Public members of WebShop are imported into ShoppingCart and then further imported into Auxiliary
or Types.
D. Public members of Types and Auxiliary are imported into ShoppingCart and then further imported into
WebShop.
E. Public members of Types and Auxiliary are imported into ShoppingCart and those from Types are
further imported into WebShop.
Answer: E

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NO.8 What does the arrow end of a dependency relationship indicate?
A. more general classifier
B. element initiates communication
C. whole in a whole-part relationship
D. client element is affected by a change in the supplier element
E. supplier element is unaffected by a change in the client element
Answer: E

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NO.9 What is true about every named element that is a member of a namespace?
A. It is owned by the namespace.
B. It has one unique name within the namespace.
C. It is identified by its name within the namespace.
D. It can be distinguished from other members in the namespace.
Answer: D

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NO.10 What are the association end names in the exhibit?
A. Person and Order
B. customer and Order
C. 1 and *
D. 1, *, customer, and Order
E. 1, *, customer, order, Person, and Order
Answer: B

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NO.11 A property is a feature that can be represented in what ways? (Choose two)
A. as an association
B. as an association end
C. as an attribute in a class
D. as an operation in a class
E. as an indication of whether the feature is public or private
Answer: BC

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NO.12 Constraints are shown using what symbols?
A. [ ]
B. ( )
C. { }
D. ?"
E. " "
Answer: C

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NO.13 What are some of the important semantics of packages? (Choose three)
A. A class may be owned by multiple packages.
B. An element may be owned by at most one package.
C. The public contents of a package are accessible outside the package.
D. The public contents of a package are not accessible outside the package.
E. If a package is removed from a model, the owned contents are removed.
F. If a package is removed from a model, the owned contents are reassigned.
Answer: BCE

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NO.14 The instance diagram in the exhibit contains father and son without underlines. What is the meaning of
this?
A. The Don class is a superclass of the Josh class.
B. An association having end names father and son.
C. The diagram is a mixture of class and instance diagrams.
D. A link of an association having end names father and son.
E. The names are incorrectly specified, because underlined names are required.
Answer: D

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NO.15 What statements are true of the <<permit>> dependency in the exhibit? (Choose two)
A. X can access only the baz property of W.
B. X can access the baz and quux properties of W.
C. X can access only the quux property of W.
D. W can access only the foo property of X.
E. W can access the foo and bar properties of X.
F. W can access only the bar property of X.
Answer: BF

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NO.16 What does a <<use>> dependency mean in a relationship between one element and another?
A. specifies how it uses another element
B. specifies how it realizes another element
C. specifies how one element implements another element
D. requires another element for its full implementation or operation
Answer: D

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NO.17 What is an element in UML 2.0?
A. member of a set
B. instance of a class
C. constituent of a model
D. abstract metaclass with only one superclass
E. substance not separable by ordinary chemical means
Answer: C

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NO.18 In the exhibit, what is the meaning of size in these two diagrams?
A. Only one or the other should be used, not both, in order to avoid a name conflict.
B. The size end name on the association indicates data storage and the attribute does not.
C. There is one size property diagrammed both as an attribute and as an association end.
D. There are two size properties that have no name conflict as long as each size is private.
E. The size attribute in the class indicates that it will be stored within the class and the end name does
not.
Answer: C

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NO.19 What does an {ordered} designator do for a multiplicity?
A. specifies that values are sequentially ordered
B. specifies an inclusive interval of non-negative integers
C. indicates the correct sequence of messages in a sequence diagram
D. indicates that the upper bound must be greater than the lower bound for the multiplicity
Answer: A

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NO.20 What does an association specify?
A. tuples that are not links
B. relationship among models
C. links between associated types
D. links between instances of associated types
E. links between instances of untyped classes
Answer: D

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Exam Code: OMG-OCUP-300
Exam Name: OMG (OMG-Certified UML Professional Advanced Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 134 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 What is NOT possible when a classifier receives a request via one of its ports.?
A. A new port is created on the classifier.
B. A behavior of the classifier is invoked.
C. The request does not trigger any behavior and is not forwarded.
D. The request is forwarded to a part of the classifier.
E. The port routes the request to one of a number of parts depending on the content of the request.
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is wrong in this deployment diagram exhibit? (Choose two)
A. Icons are swapped.
B. Interface on Order should point up.
C. <<manifest>> arrow should have a dashed line.
D. <<manifest>> arrowhead should be hollow.
E. <<manifest>> arrowhead should be solid.
Answer: A,C

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NO.3 When a component is deleted, what happens to objects in a component's namespace?
A. objects are deleted
B. only those objects that participate in shared aggregations are retained
C. objects continue to exist
D. contents of the component's namespace are promoted to its superclass
Answer: A

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NO.4 A ReplyAction always follows what action?
A. AcceptCallAction
B. AcceptEventAction
C. ReadExtentAction
D. CreateLinkObjectAction
E. StartOwnedBehaviorAction
Answer: A

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NO.5 The OCL dot operator may NOT traverse which classifier property?
A. operations
B. association ends
C. queries
D. attributes
Answer: A

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NO.6 In the exhibit, what is NOT true of ReclassifyObjectAction?
A. It has an output pin providing exactly one object.
B. It refers to any number of old classifiers.
C. It refers to any number of new classifiers.
D. It has an input pin taking exactly one object.
E. The default value for replacing all old classifiers is false.
Answer: A

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NO.7 What determines which value an object flow edge chooses to move from the source? (Choose two)
A. transformation
B. upper bound
C. ordering
D. effect
E. weight
F. selection
Answer: D,F

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NO.8 What is a protocol of an interface?
A. procedure that implements the communications-based behavioral features of the interface
B. kind of behavior that describes the implementation of the object that realizes the interface
C. kind of state machine that defines ordering constraints on the behavioral features of the interface
D. interaction specification associated with the interface
Answer: C

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NO.9 In the exhibit, how many links are created by default when an instance of A is created?
A. two
B. four
C. none
D. eight
Answer: B

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NO.10 What is true about an InformationItem in UML 2.0?
A. is not an abstraction
B. can have generalization
C. can have associations
D. is not instantiable
E. can have features
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which UML 2.0 Superstructure package reuses the InfrastructureLibrary package?
A. Classes::Core
B. CompositeStructures::Core
C. Structures::Kernel
D. Classes::Kernel
E. Kernel::Classes
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which stereotype CANNOT be used to elaborate the semantic intent of an Artifact instance?
A. <<library>>
B. <<executable>>
C. <<script>>
D. <<source>>
E. <<specification>>
Answer: E

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NO.13 What does the composite structure notation show in the exhibit?
A. p is a port on a part of composite C, which is not shown.
B. p is a port providing a system service.
C. p is a hidden port.
D. p is a behavior port.
Answer: C

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NO.14 How can UML be extended? (Choose two)
A. using Interface Definition Library (IDL)
B. using the Object Constraint Language (OCL)
C. using XML Metadata Interchange (XMI)
D. using profiles
E. reusing part of the UML infrastructure library and augmenting it with metaclasses and relationships
Answer: D,E

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NO.15 What does the composite structure notation show in the exhibit?
A. p is a hidden port.
B. p is a behavior port.
C. p is a port on a part of composite C, which is not shown.
D. p is a port providing a system service.
Answer: A

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NO.16 What are the ways that the UML metamodel reuses the InfrastructureLibrary package? (Choose two)
A. specializes meta-metaclasses that are defined in the InfrastructureLibrary
B. stereotypes meta-metaclasses that are defined in the InfrastructureLibrary
C. exports and generalizes metaclasses in the InfrastructureLibrary
D. imports and specializes metaclasses in the InfrastructureLibrary
E. is instantiated from meta-metaclasses that are defined in the InfrastructureLibrary
Answer: D,E

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NO.17 What does the protocol conformance between two protocol state machines mean?
A. the specific state machine must abide by the behavior of the general state machine
B. all triggers in the two protocol state machines must be the same
C. the two protocol state machines must be the same
D. the general state machine must abide by the behavior of the specific state machine
E. the specific state machine must have the same number of states and transitions as the general
machine
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which statements are true about OCL? (Choose three)
A. OCL is a query language.
B. OCL is a programming and procedural language.
C. OCL is a typed language.
D. OCL is a procedural language.
E. OCL is a specification language.
F. OCL is a programming language.
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.19 In planning to describe (in UML) a middleware software package, a company recently acquired, which
class is most likely created to describe the package itself?
A. Manifestation
B. Device
C. DeploymentSpecification
D. ExecutionEnvironment
E. Artifact
Answer: D

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NO.20 What is true about a model in UML 2.0?
A. cannot contain another model
B. can represent only software systems
C. is a kind of package
D. is a kind of component
E. can represent all system structures
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 310-010
Exam Name: SUN (ACI - Operations Certificate)
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Total Q&A: 342 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-29

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