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2014年2月22日星期六

250-311 best Symantec certification exam questions and answers free download

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Exam Code: 250-311
Exam Name: Symantec (Administration of Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0 for Windows)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 132 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-21

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NO.1 Lifeline Supply Company found during a recent audit that the current security solution for
theirdesktops and servers missed several rootkitswithin their environment. These rootkits have
compromised several company computers.
Which protection technology in Symantec Endpoint Protection could remediate these rootkits?
A. Host Integrity
B. Antivirus and Antispyware Protection
C. Network Threat Protection
D. Application and Device Control
Answer: B

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NO.2 In the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager console, where do you modifyreplication?
A. Admim > Servers > Server Properties > Directory Servers
B. Admin > Servers > Local Site > Replication Partner
C. Policies > Management Server Lists > Replication
D. Admin > Servers > Database > Tasks
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which two statements are true about Symantec Endpoint Protection TruScan Proactive Threat Scan?
(Choose two.)
A. It inspects encrypted network traffic.
B. It evaluates process behavior.
C. It uses malicious code detection signatures.
D. It blocks attackers' IP addresses.
E.It detects unknown threats.
Answer: BE

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NO.4 Where can you edit a non-shared policy?
A. Clients
B. Monitors
C. Home
D. Admin
Answer: A

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NO.5 THE DISCLOSURE TO YOU OF THIS EXAMINATION ("THEEXAM") AND ANY
ACCOMPANYING EXAMINATION MATERIALS AND ANY DERIVATIVES THEREOF
(COLLECTIVELY REFERRED TO AS THE "EXAM MATERIALS") IS SUBJECT TO THE
TERMSAND CONDITIONS OF THE SYMANTEC CORPORATION CONFIDENTIALITY
AGREEMENT PROVIDED HEREIN. BY CLICKING ON THE "START" BUTTON IN
RESPONSE TO THE ACCEPTANCE QUERY, OR BY OTHERWISE TAKING THE
EXAMINATION, YOU ARE CONSENTING TO BE BOUND BY THIS AGREEMENT. BY
CLICKING ON THE "EXIT" BUTTON, YOU CHOOSE NOT TO AGREE AND WILL BE LET OUT OF THE
EXAM.
IF THESE TERMSARE CONSIDERED AN OFFER, ACCEPTANCE IS EXPRESSLY
LIMITED TO THESE TERMS.
SYMANTEC CORPORATION CONFIDENTIALITY AGREEMENT
This is an agreement ("Agreement") between You and Symantec Corporation that sets forth the terms and
conditions of your use and disclosure of the Exam Materials.
You hereby understand, acknowledge, and agree:
1.That Symantec Corporation spends substantial sums of time and money in developing and
administering its Exam Materials and labs and carefully guards their integrity and
confidentiality;
2.That the questions and answers of the Exam are the exclusiveand confidential property of Symantec
Corporation and are protected by Symantec Corporation's intellectual property rights;
3.That You may not disclose the Exam questions or answers or discuss any of the content of the Exam
Materials with any person, without prior written approval of Symantec Corporation;
4.Not toremovefromtheexamination roomany ExamMaterialsof any kind providedto Youor
any other material related to the Exam, including, without limitation, any notes or calculations;
5.Not to copy or attempt to make copies (written, photocopied, or otherwise) of any Exam
Material, including, without limitation, any exam questions or answers;
6.Not to sell, license, distribute, giveaway, or obtain from any other source other Symantec Corporation
the Exam materials, questions or Answers.
You hereby acknowledge and agree that violation of any of these provisions will cause
irreparable harm to Symantec Corporation for which monetary remedies may be inadequate, and that
Symantec Corporation shall be entitled, without waiving any other rights or remedies, to take all
appropriate actions to remedy or prevent such disclosure or misuse, including obtaining an immediate
injunction. Neither this Agreement nor any right granted hereunder shallbe assignable or otherwise
transferableby You. ThisAgreement maybe modifiedonlyby a writing signed by both parties. This
Agreement shall be construed in accordance with the laws of the State of California, without giving effect
to any choice of law rule. This Agreement represents the entire Agreement of the parties hereto pertaining
to the subject matter of this
Agreement, and supersedes any and all prior oral discussions and/or written correspondence or
agreements between the parties with respect thereto.
If you ACCEPT the termsand conditions of this Agreement, click 'Yes, I agree.', and begin this exam. If
you DO NOT ACCEPT this Agreement, you must click 'No, I do not agree.', and will not be able to proceed
with this exam.
Answer.pending

NO.6 Which label is given to a program or algorithm that replicates itself overa computer
network and usually performs malicious actions?
A. virus
B. zero-day exploit
C. spam
D. worm
Answer: D

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NO.7 What is one reason for disabling learned applications?
A. Learned applications can often expose usernames and passwords.
B. Learned applications require promiscuous mode.
C. Learned applications are often legitimate programs.
D. Learned applications are illegal in some countries.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Lifeline Supply Company wants to reduce or eliminatethe HelpDesk callsthey receivedue to end users
modifying, moving, or deleting configuration files.
Which component of Symantec Endpoint Protection will allow the IT administrator to prevent users from
altering configuration files?
A. TruScan ProactiveThreat Scan
B. Device Control
C. Application Control
D. Host Integrity
Answer: C

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NO.9 An administrator believes that client computers are running different software versions of Symantec
Endpoint Protection.
Which report type shows which client computers are running different software versions?
A. Application and Device Control Report
B. System Report
C. Compliance Report
D. Computer Status Report
Answer: D

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NO.10 A computer is configured in Mixed Control mode. The administrator creates and applies a firewall policy
to the computer that has a rule that allows FTP trafficabove the blue line and another rule that blocks
LDAP traffic below the blue line. On the computer, local rules are created to allow LDAP trafficand block
FTP.
Which traffic flow behavior should be expected on the local computer?
A. Both FTP and LDAP trafficare allowed.
B. Both FTP and LDAP trafficare blocked.
C. FTP is blocked and LDAP is allowed.
D. FTP is allowed and LDAP is blocked.
Answer: A

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NO.11 What are the three configurable actions in TruScan ProactiveThreat Scan? (Choose three.)
A. log suspect process only
B. set a public SNMP trap
C. quarantine suspect process
D. terminate the suspect process
E. generate dump of system state
F. suspend the suspect process
Answer: ACD

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NO.12 Which page is used to create login accounts to the Symantec Endpoint Protection
Manager console?
A. Policies
B. Home
C. Admin
D. Clients
Answer: A

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NO.13 The Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager supports the use of which database solutions?
(Choose two.)
A. Microsoft SQL Server 2000
B. MySQL Server 2005
C. Microsoft SQL Server 2005
D. Oracle Database 11g
E. Oracle Database 9i
Answer: AC

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NO.14 Which fivecomponents are incorporated in Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0? (Choose five.)
A. antispam
B. application and device control
C. full disk encryption
D. host integrity
E. antivirus
F. antispyware
G. content filtering
H. intrusion prevention
I. client firewall
J. asset management
Answer: BEFHI

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NO.15 Refer to the exhibit.
Inheritance is turned on for groups LLSCO, Group A, Laptops, and Group 2 (outlined).
Without turning inheritance off, which top level group must be modified to affect users in the Laptop
group?
A. Desktops
B. Laptops
C. Group 1
D. Group A
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which Network Threat Protection technologies of the SymantecEndpoint Protection client provide the
primary protection layers against network attacks?
A. ProactiveThreat Protection and Network Access Control
B. ProactiveThreat Protection and Client Firewall
C. Intrusion Prevention and Client Firewall
D. Client Firewall and Network Access Control
Answer: C

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NO.17 What controls access from one network segment to another?
A. hub
B. MTA
C. sensor
D. firewall
Answer: D

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NO.18 THE DISCLOSURE TO YOU OF THIS EXAMINATION ("THE EXAM") AND ANY
ACCOMPANYING EXAMINATION MATERIALS AND ANY DERIVATIVES THEREOF
(COLLECTIVELY REFERRED TO AS THE "EXAM MATERIALS") IS SUBJECT TO THE
TERMSAND CONDITIONS OF THE SYMANTEC CORPORATION CONFIDENTIALITY
AGREEMENT PROVIDED HEREIN. BY CLICKING ON THE "START" BUTTON IN
RESPONSE TO THE ACCEPTANCE QUERY, OR BY OTHERWISE TAKING THE
EXAMINATION, YOU ARE CONSENTING TO BE BOUND BY THIS AGREEMENT. BY
CLICKING ON THE "EXIT" BUTTON, YOU CHOOSE NOT TO AGREE AND WILL BE LET OUT OF THE
EXAM.
IF THESE TERMSARE CONSIDERED AN OFFER, ACCEPTANCE IS EXPRESSLY
LIMITED TO THESE TERMS.
SYMANTEC CORPORATION CONFIDENTIALITY AGREEMENT
This is an agreement ("Agreement") between You and Symantec Corporation that sets forth the terms and
conditions of your use and disclosure of the Exam Materials.
You hereby understand, acknowledge, and agree:
1.That Symantec Corporation spends substantial sums of time and money in developing and
administering its Exam Materials and labs and carefully guards their integrity and
confidentiality;
2.That the questions and answers of the Exam are the exclusiveand confidential property of Symantec
Corporation and are protected by Symantec Corporation's intellectual property rights;
3.That You may not disclose the Exam questions or answers or discuss any of the content of the Exam
Materials with any person, without prior written approval of Symantec Corporation;
4.Not toremovefromtheexamination roomany ExamMaterialsof any kind providedto Youor
any other material related to the Exam, including, without limitation, any notes or calculations;
5.Not to copy or attempt to make copies (written, photocopied, or otherwise) of any Exam
Material, including, without limitation, any exam questions or answers;
6.Not to sell, license, distribute, giveaway, or obtain from any other source other Symantec
Corporation the Exam materials, questions or answers.
You hereby acknowledge and agree that violation of any of these provisions will cause
irreparable harm to Symantec Corporation for which monetary remedies may be inadequate, and that
Symantec Corporation shall be entitled, without waiving any other rights or remedies, to take all
appropriate actions to remedy or prevent such disclosure or misuse, including obtaining an immediate
injunction. Neither this Agreement nor any right granted hereunder shallbe assignable or otherwise
transferableby You. ThisAgreement maybe modifiedonlyby a writing signed by both parties. This
Agreement shall be construed in accordance with the laws of the State of California, without giving effect
to any choice of law rule. This Agreement represents the entire Agreement of the parties hereto pertaining
to the subject matter of this Agreement, and supersedes any and all prior oral discussions and/or written
correspondence or agreements between the parties with respect thereto. If you ACCEPT the termsand
conditions of this Agreement, click 'Yes, I agree.', and begin this exam. If you DO NOT ACCEPT this
Agreement, you must click 'No, I do not agree.', and will not be able to proceed with this exam.
Answer. pending

NO.19 The administrators at Lifeline Supply Company have a manufacturing facility that runs
three shifts. Employees at the facility must share computers. The administrators want the
ability to apply different policies/configurations for each shift.
How can the administrator configure the environment to allow policies to be applied to each shift?
(Choose two.)
A. create one group for all computers in the facility
B. create one group for all users in the facility
C. create one group for all computers on each shift
D. create one group for all users on each shift
E. switch the clients to computer mode
F. switch the clients to user mode
Answer: DF

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NO.20 A company has a large sales force who travel with laptops. They want to block USB
access on the laptops when they are disconnected from the corporate network.
Which two things are required to achievethis? (Choose two.)
A. multiple sites
B. multiple locations
C. firewall policy
D. device control policy
E. host integrity policy
Answer: BD

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Exam Code: 251-250
Exam Name: Symantec (Administration of Staorage Foundation 5.0 for UNIX)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 208 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-21

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NO.1 Which statements are true about deporting a disk group? (Choose two.)
A.The volumes are unavailable.
B.The disk group is available for importing.
C.The disk group is deported and online.
D.The file systems are destroyed.
E.The file systems are accessible.
Correct:A B

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NO.2 Which states are displayed in the output of vxprint? (Choose two.)
A.Data
B.Kernel
C.File System
D.Volume
E.User
Correct:B D

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NO.3 Which command upgrades the datadg disk group from version 50 to the current disk group
version?
A.vxdg -T 50 upgrade datadg
B.vxdg upgrade datadg
C.vxdg currvers datadg
D.vxdg 50 currvers datadg
Correct:B

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NO.4 What are valid mount options for a Veritas file system? (Choose two.)
A.nolargefiles
B.shared
C.logtmp
D.delaylog
E.logdelay
Correct:A D

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NO.5 The upgrade scripts are being used to upgrade Volume Manager. Which file's existence would
indicate that the upgrade_start script had been run, but the upgrade_finish has yet to be run?
A./UPGRADE_START/.start_runed
B./VXVM5.0-UPGRADE/.start_runed
C./etc/vx/.start_runed
D./etc/vx/.upgrade_runed
Correct:B

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NO.6 Which command removes the datadg02 disk from the datadg disk group?
A.vxassist datadg rmdisk datadg02
B.vxdg datadg rmdisk datadg02
C.vxassist datadg remove disk datadg02
D.vxdg datadg remove datadg02
Correct:B

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NO.7 Which vxassist parameter is used to set the number of data plexes in a non-layered mirrored
volume?
A.nplex
B.numplex
C.nummirror
D.nmirror
Correct:D

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NO.8 After initializing a disk for use in Volume Manager, which command is used to create a disk
group named datadg on a device shown as device_tag and using a disk media name of datadg01?
A.vxassist create datadg datadg01=device_tag
B.vxdg create datadg datadg01=device_tag
C.vxdg init datadg datadg01=device_tag
D.vxassist datadg init datadg01= device_tag
Correct:C

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NO.9 Which command displays the number of paths to the datadg01 disk?
A.vxdisk list datadg01
B.vxdg list datadg01
C.vxpath list datadg01
D.vxdmpadm list datadg01
Correct:A

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NO.10 Which command displays the amount of free space in the configuration database of the datadg
disk group?
A.vxdg -g datadg free
B.vxdg -g datadg list
C.vxdg free datadg
D.vxdg list datadg
Correct:D

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NO.11 Which commands display plex, volume, and kernel states? (Choose two.)
A.vxcat
B.vxdisplay
C.vxinfo
D.vxprint
E.vxstate
Correct:C D

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NO.12 In the output of the vxdisk list command, there are no entries in the DISK and GROUP columns.
However, you see online invalid in the output of the STATUS column. What does the online invalid
status indicate?
A.The disk is failing and needs to be replaced for future use in Volume Manager.
B.The disk is incompatible with the current release of Volume Manager.
C.The disk is available for initialization or encapsulation by Volume Manager.
D.The disk is available for use and has encapsulated data deported on another system.
Correct:C

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NO.13 Which statement is true about adding a mirror to an existing striped volume?
A.A concatenated plex is added to the volume by default.
B.You can use any disks in the disk group to contain the new plex.
C.Synchronization of the new plex is required.
D.You should add the new plex to a different disk group for redundancy.
Correct:C

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NO.14 Which statements are true about renaming the disk object? (Choose two.)
A.New disk names must be unique within the disk group.
B.All subdisks will be renamed together with the disk.
C.The disk group needs to be offline.
D.The new disk name must be unique within the system.
E.Subdisks names will remain the same.
Correct:A E

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NO.15 Which vxsnap command option recreates a space-optimized instant snapshot?
A.restore
B.reattach
C.refresh
D.reassociate
Correct:C

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NO.16 What occurs when you add an initialized disk to an existing disk group? (Choose two.)
A.The public and private regions are created on the disk.
B.An empty volume is created on the disk by default.
C.The disk group configuration database is updated.
D.Volume Manager performs a rescan to recognize all newly configured disks.
E.The disk is stamped with the system host ID.
Correct:C E

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NO.17 When creating a new volume with the New Volume Wizard in VEA, which layout options are
available to create a layered volume? (Choose two.)
A.concatenate-mirror
B.stripe-mirror
C.mirror-stripe
D.mirror-concatenate
E.concatenate-stripe
F.stripe-concatenate
Correct:A B

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NO.18 Which command grows the datavol volume by an additional 30 MB and resizes the file system at
the same time?
A.vxassist -g datadg growby datavol 30m
B.vxresize -g datadg datavol 30m
C.vxresize -g datadg datavol +30m
D.vxassist -g datadg growto datavol 30m
Correct:C

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NO.19 Which command can be used to remove a mirror from a volume? (Choose two.)
A.vxedit
B.vxassist
C.vxremove
D.vxevac
E.vxmirror
Correct:A B

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NO.20 Which command is used to change the stripe unit size and number of columns for the datavol
volume in the datadg disk group?
A.vxvol datadg convert datavol stripeunit=32k ncol=5
B.vxassist datadg convert datavol stripeunit=32k ncol=5
C.vxvol datadg relayout datavol stripeunit=32k ncol=5
D.vxassist datadg relayout datavol stripeunit=32k ncol=5
Correct:D

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Exam Code: 250-312
Exam Name: Symantec (Administration of Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Server)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 246 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-21

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NO.1 Which database application is included with Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers?
A. Microsoft SQL 2005 Express
B. Microsoft SQL Server 2000 SP2
C. Microsoft SQL Desktop Edition 2000
D. Microsoft SQL Server 2005
Answer: A

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NO.2 Using the silent mode method, how can a backup administrator push-install Backup Exec Remote
Agent for Windows Systems simultaneously to multiple machines?
A. create a command file that reads a number from a .txt file
B. create a command file that reads remote computer names from a .txt file
C. use the Push Install Wizard to add the number of simultaneous installs
D. use the Push Install Wizard to add the parameters for the silent installation
Answer: B

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NO.3 Refer to the exhibit.
Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers option is required to manage all backups from the
data center?
A. Shared Storage Option
B. Active Directory Recovery Option
C. Central Admin Server Option
D. Executive Desktop Option
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which three versions of Microsoft SQL does Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers support?
(Choose three.)
A. Microsoft SQL Server Desktop Edition (MSDE) 2000
B. Microsoft SQL 2005 Express Edition
C. Microsoft SQL Server 2000 SP2
D. Microsoft SQL Server 2000 SP3a or later
E. Microsoft SQL Server 7.0
F. Microsoft SQL 2005
Answer: BDF

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NO.5 Which two factors define a backup Service Level Agreement (SLA)? (Choose two.)
A. Recovery Point Objective
B. Recovery Time Objective
C. Recovery Method
D. Recovery Retention Period
E. Recovery Priority Objective
Answer: AB

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NO.6 Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers component manages devices and media?
A. Advanced Device and Media Manager
B. Media Operations Manager
C. Enterprise Media Manager
D. Advanced Tape Device Manager
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which account enables Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers to access resources for
backup?
A. administrative
B. logon
C. service
D. domain
Answer: B

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NO.8 Refer to the Exhibit.
Which method provides the most current restore point?
A. tape replication
B. tape backup
C. system rebuild
D. system deduplication
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which two alert category types can be disabled? (Choose two.)
A. Warning alerts
B. Attention Required alerts
C. Error alerts
D. E-mail Failure alerts
E. Informational alerts
Answer: AE

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NO.10 What are two benefits of enabling Database Maintenance in Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows
Servers? (Choose two.)
A. deletes aged reports
B. exports the database to XML
C. removes alert history
D. decreases the size of the database
E. opens the database for sharing
Answer: CD

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NO.11 Refer to the exhibit.
A backup administrator must recover all Microsoft Word documents (.doc) created after January 1, 2005
from the F:\CEO directory, including subfolders.
How is this accomplished?
A. enter F:\CEO for the Path; enter *.doc for the File; select Include subdirectories; enter 1/1/2005 for
From box; enter today's date for To box; select Include for Type
B. enter F:\CEO for the Path; enter *.* for the File; enter 1/1/2005 for the From Box; leave the To box blank;
select Include for Type
C. enter F:\*.* for the Path; enter \CEO\*.doc for the File; select Include subdirectories; enter 1/1/2005 for
the From box; enter today's date for the To box; select Exclude for Type
D. enter \* for the Path; enter *.doc for the File; select Include subdirectories; enter 1/1/2005 for the From
box; enter today's date for the To box; select Include for Type
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which technology provides the most efficient Recovery Point Objective (RPO)?
A. Remote Administration Option
B. Intelligent Disaster Recovery Option
C. Backup Exec System Recovery
D. Continuous Protection Server
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which three summaries can be found on the Job Monitor's System Summary view? (Choose three.)
A. device and media summary
B. alerts summary
C. licensing summary
D. installed patch summary
E. job summary
Answer: ABE

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NO.14 A web-based retailer's mission-critical servers must be online constantly, providing zero downtime in
which to run a backup.
Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers component is required in order to meet the SLA?
A. Advanced Disk-based Backup Option
B. Continuous Protection Server Option
C. Volume Shadow Copy Services Option
D. Central Admin Server Option
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which two Calendar Schedule settings can you use to schedule a job to run on the first and fifteenth of
every month? (Choose two.)
A. Specific Dates
B. Recurring Week Days
C. Recurring Days of the Month
D. Day Interval
E. Time Window
Answer: AC

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NO.16 Which compression type produces the least network traffic in a multi-server backup environment?
A. compression with de-duplication
B. software compression
C. hardware compression
D. compression with encryption
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which three statements are true about the attributes of a device pool? (Choose three.)
A. The All Available Drives device pool can be deleted.
B. A drive can belong to more than one device pool.
C. A device pool can contain different types of drives.
D. Device priority can be set on a device pool.
E. Multiple backup jobs can be targeted to the same device pool.
Answer: BCE

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NO.18 Which two Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Server agents/options support remote installation
from an existing media server? (Choose two.)
A. Active Directory Recovery Agent
B. Advanced Open File Option
C. Desktop and Laptop Option
D. Library Expansion Option
E. Shared Storage Option
Answer: BC

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NO.19 Which two statements are accurate regarding full backups and copy backups? (Choose two.)
A. Full backups and copy backups of the same resource include the same data.
B. Full backups and copy backups are different names for the exact same backup method.
C. Full backups and copy backups can be configured to reset the archive bit of backed up files.
D. Full backups can reset the archive bit of backed up files; copy backups are unable to reset the archive
bit.
E. Copy backups can reset the archive bit of backed up files; full backups are unable to reset the archive
bit.
Answer: AD

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NO.20 An attempt to install the Remote Agent for Linux and UNIX Servers on a UNIX server fails.
Which log can be reviewed to determine the cause of the installation failure?
A. /var/tmp/vxif/installralus/installralus.log
B. /var/logs/ralus/installralus.log
C. /install/symantec/logs/ralus.log
D. /usr/openv/symantec/logs/install.log
Answer: A

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NO.21 Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers (Backup Exec) utility can be used to change
the user account listed in the Backup Exec services?
A. Services
B. BEServices
C. ServicesMgr
D. BEDIAG
Answer: C

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NO.22 Which media set property defines the amount of time that data can be added to a piece of media?
A. Append Period
B. Overwrite Protection Period
C. Retention Period
D. Media Update Period
Answer: A

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NO.23 A medium-sized paper company with several remote offices deploys Symantec Backup Exec 12 for
Windows Servers Central Admin Server Option (CASO) in their data center. The company's SLA requires
that the backup environment be restored to an alternate location in the event of a data center outage.
Which CASO catalog location option meets this company's SLA?
A. Centralized Catalog
B. Distributed Catalog
C. Replicated Catalog
D. Exported Catalog
Answer: C

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NO.24 A single tape-drive robotic library is attached to the Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers
(Backup Exec) media server but fails to display in the Backup Exec Devices window. The library is in the
correct location under the Robotic Libraries tree, but instead of listing the drive underneath it, there is a
listing of Unknown Drive. The drive name is listed under Stand-alone Drives.
What must be done to solve this problem?
A. Restart the Backup Exec Server service and scan for new devices in Windows Device Manager.
B. Power down the Backup Exec Server and the attached robotic library, then power up the robotic library
before powering up the Backup Exec Server.
C. Run the Backup Exec Device Configuration Wizard and drag the correct drive name to the position
under the robotic library.
D. Because the robotic library is unserialized and not supported by Backup Exec, replace the robotic
library with a supported robotic library.
Answer: C

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NO.25 A global company must use a "follow-the-sun" backup strategy, which means that the backup servers
are constantly performing backups. The SLA requires that both DHCP and Active Directory remain
available.
Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers component is required in order to meet the SLA?
A. Data Protection Option
B. Advanced Open File Option
C. Central Admin Server Option
D. Agent for Enterprise Vault Option
Answer: B

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NO.26 Refer to the exhibit.
Annual accounting history must be archived for 120 days and marketing history must be archived for 90
days.
Which setting allows reporting for marketing and accounting history?
A. change Keep alert history to 90 days
B. change Keep job logs to 120 days
C. change Keep job history selection for keep job history to match current OPP
D. change Keep job history for selected number of days to 120
Answer: C

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NO.27 What does the Backup Exec Environment Check utility verify to ensure that the installation process can
complete successfully? (Choose two.)
A. Is a previous version of Backup Exec installed?
B. Is there enough storage space for disk-based backups?
C. Is an SMTP Server available?
D. Are there Microsoft SQL database account privileges?
E. Are there sufficient logon account privileges?
Answer: AE

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NO.28 A large enterprise provides a six-hour backup window at night, but requires failed systems to be
restored immediately.
Which SLA meets the Recovery Point Objective (RPO) and Recovery Time Objective (RTO)
requirements?
A. RPO 0, RTO 0
B. RPO 6 hours, RTO 6 hours
C. RPO 6 hours, RTO 0
D. RPO 0, RTO 6 hours
Answer: C

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NO.29 Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers agent/option provides Microsoft Virtual Server
support?
A. Shadow Copy
B. Virtual Machine
C. System State
D. Remote Agent
Answer: D

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NO.30 A financial institution has a two-hour backup window and is required to restore individual e-mails
within 20 minutes if their Microsoft Exchange Server fails.
Which Service Level Agreement (SLA) meets the Recovery Point Objective (RPO) and Recovery Time
Objective (RTO) requirements?
A. RTO 2 hours, RPO 20 minutes, Granular Recovery Technology enabled
B. RTO 20 minutes, RPO 2 hours, Granular Recovery Technology enabled
C. RTO 20 minutes, RPO 2 hours, Individual E-mail Recovery enabled
D. RTO 2 hours, RPO 20 minutes, Individual E-mail Recovery enabled
Answer: B

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NO.1 An administrator wants to use the capacity-based licensing model. There are 50 clients, each with 50
GB of data that must be backed up. Ten of the clients are database servers.
What is the correct specification for determining the license configuration?
A. 5 Front End Terabytes, 40 Client Licenses, 10 Application and Database Packs
B. 1 Enterprise Server, 40 Client Licenses, 10 Application and Database Packs
C. 2.5 Front End Terabytes, 50 Client Licenses, 10 Application and Database Packs
D. 5 Back End Terabytes, 50 Client Licenses, 10 Application and Database Packs
Answer: C

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NO.2 In Veritas NetBackup 6.5, what is a backup policy?
A. a set of associations defining which Backup Creation Wizard will run with which clients
B. a schedule defining when a given backup will execute its full or incremental sessions
C. a list of parameters that define the details of how a given backup will be performed
D. a list of clients to be backed up and how long the backup can run
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which two purchased options of Veritas NetBackup 6.5 enable the additional features found in the
Enterprise Disk Foundation? (Select two.)
A. Enterprise Client Option
B. Advanced Vault Option
C. VCB Integration Option
D. OpenStorage Option
E. Flexible Disk Option
Answer: DE

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NO.4 What happens when a backup is started and there are no tapes in the pool specified in the policy?
A. The backup automatically fails and a status code 96 is shown.
B. The Media Manager tries to move a tape from the Scratch Pool to the specified pool.
C. The oldest Full backup is deleted, and that tape is reused for the backup.
D. The GUI pops up a message asking the administrator which action to take.
Answer: B

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NO.5 What are three options for locating and viewing Veritas NetBackup 6.5 manuals and other
documentation? (Select three.)
A. NetBackup 6.5 media set (the CD-ROMs and/or DVD-ROMs)
B. documentation files in /opt/openv/goodies/hlp (UNIX/Linux)
C. hard copy documentation provided with NetBackup 6.5
D. online on the Symantec Corporation Support website
E. help files in C:\Program Files\Veritas\NetBackup\goodies\help (Windows)
Answer: ACD

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NO.6 In Veritas NetBackup 6.5 there are currently three storage units (STU-A, STU-B and STU-C). STU-A is
set as On Demand Only, and STU-B and STU-C do not have On Demand Only selected. Three policies
have been created as follows: PolicyA is set up to use storage unit STU-A, PolicyB is set up as Any
Available storage unit and PolicyC is set up to use STU-C.
If STU-B fills up, and STU-A and STU-C still have available space, what happens to future backups for
PolicyB?
A. Backups will use STU-A.
B. Backups will use STU-C.
C. Backups will remain queued waiting for available space on STU-B.
D. Backups will fail with an error message indicating media is unavailable.
Answer: B

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NO.7 What are two features of the Flexible Disk Option? (Select two.)
A. shared disk
B. de-duplication
C. replication
D. advanced disk
Answer: AD

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NO.8 Which two cause the Policy Execution Manager to modify the Next Due Jobs worklist? (Select two.)
A. when Enterprise Media Manager initiates a request to modify the worklist
B. when a backup policy is added, modified, or removed
C. when a job is initiated and completed
D. when a user initiated backup is requested
Answer: BC

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NO.9 What are two benefits of using OpenStorage to manage and control the use of disk-based storage by
Veritas NetBackup 6.5? (Select two.)
A. A Storage Unit can be configured to fail over from a Disk Pool to tape.
B. Multiple Media Servers can access and share a Disk Pool.
C. A Data Pool can be created, which allows load balancing of both tape and disk.
D. Load balancing can be performed across the Media Servers for a Disk Pool.
Answer: BD

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NO.10 What is OpenStorage?
A. the new Symantec physical disk array
B. the software layer that interfaces with any type of disk
C. the Veritas NetBackup 6.5 service that manages disks
D. a new term for a Veritas NetBackup 6.5 Disk Storage Unit
Answer: B

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NO.11 What is it called when an administrator sets up a set of disk volumes that can then be assign to
specific Media Servers, Policies, or Storage Units?
A. OpenStorage
B. Disk Pool
C. Volume Pool
D. Disk Storage Unit
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which two disk-based features support data de-duplication? (Select two.)
A. SAN Disk
B. Flexible Disk
C. OpenStorage Disk
D. PureDisk Storage
Answer: CD

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NO.13 Which feature of Veritas NetBackup 6.5 allows backup data to be encrypted at no additional cost?
A. Media Server Encryption
B. NDMP Encryption
C. Client Encryption
D. EMM Server Encryption
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which three features are included in the Standard Infrastructure capacity tier? (Select three.)
A. Library Based Tape Drive
B. OpenStorage Option
C. Vault Option
D. Shared Storage Option
E. Flexible Disk Option
Answer: ACD

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NO.15 In your data center, application data is deemed to be the most important data. You use Platinum Data
Classification in the policy to back up the Application data. You have UNIX clients that use Silver and
Bronze Data Classifications in their policies. There are Windows clients that do not use Data
Classifications. All data is backed up to DSSUs, have a one-year retention and have relocated to tape.
Which backup images are deleted first from the DSSUs when the disk becomes full?
A. application backups
B. UNIX client backups
C. Windows client backups
D. No backups are deleted.
Answer: C

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NO.16 An administrator wants to back up a VMware virtual machine using the VMware Consolidated Backup
(VCB) interface.
Which component is required to enable VCB backups?
A. Database and Application Pack
B. Enterprise Client
C. Desktop and Laptop Option
D. Workstation Client
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which two are internal databases used by Veritas NetBackup 6.5? (Select two.)
A. NDMP File database
B. Image database
C. Topology database
D. EMM database
E. Encrypted Media database
Answer: BD

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NO.18 Which two components/options of Veritas NetBackup 6.5 include the Bare Metal Restore (BMR) Client?
(Select two.)
A. Standard Client
B. Bare Metal Restore Client
C. Enterprise Client
D. Desktop and Laptop Client
E. Database and Application Pack
Answer: AC

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NO.19 Which three statements are true about exclude lists? (Select three.)
A. They can be specific for schedules.
B. They can be specific for policies.
C. They can be used during user initiated backups.
D. They can use wildcards for file names.
E. They can be run after the include list.
Answer: ABD

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NO.20 For Veritas NetBackup 6.5, what is a backup image?
A. a complete copy of an existing backup to tape media (from a disk staging unit or tape media)
B. the subset of NetBackup 6.5 catalog metadata that describes and precisely locates the data from one
client
C. all backup data that is backed up from one client in a single stream during a specific backup session
D. a full backup of the data from one client, plus the Bare Metal Restore system image from that same
client
Answer: C

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2014年2月19日星期三

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Exam Code: ST0-47W
Exam Name: Symantec (Veritas NetBackup 6.5 for Windows (STS))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 115 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-18

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NO.1 An administrator wants to use the capacity-based licensing model. There are 50 clients, each with
50Gb of data that must be backed up. Ten of the clients are database servers.
What is the correct specification for determining the license configuration?
A. 5 Front End Terabytes, 40 Client Licenses, 10 Application and Database Packs
B. 1 Enterprise Server, 40 Client Licenses, 10 Application and Database Packs
C. 2.5 Front End Terabytes, 50 Client Licenses, 10 Application and Database Packs
D. 5 Back End Terabytes, 50 Client Licenses, 10 Application and Database Packs
Answer: C

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NO.2 In a customer's Veritas NetBackup 6.5 environment, the Master Server is host A, the Enterprise Media
Manager (EMM) Server is host B, the only configured Media Server is host C, and Client systems are host
D through host Z. The customer has encountered a problem performing a standard restore operation of
host D from the tape on which the backup was written and was directed by Symantec support to enable
debug logging for the bpbrm process.
On which Veritas NetBackup 6.5 system would this debug log be enabled?
A. NetBackup Master Server (host A)
B. NetBackup EMM (host B)
C. NetBackup Media Server (host C)
D. NetBackup Client (host D)
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which two statements are true about the PBX communication facility used in Veritas NetBackup?
(Select two.)
A. PBX is used when legacy (pre-6.x) processes need to communicate with new (6.x) NetBackup
processes.
B. PBX is used for all tape library command streams in NetBackup 6.5 and above.
C. PBX is used for NetBackup 6.0 and above for all interprocess communication.
D. PBX is used for all disk array snapshot facility command streams in NetBackup 6.5 and above.
Answer: AC

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NO.4 The backup of a particular client system fails with a status code 49 - 'Client did not start'.
For which process do you need to create and check the debug log?
A. bptm
B. bprd
C. bpbkar
D. bpdbm
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which two are internal databases used by Veritas NetBackup 6.5? (Select two.)
A. NDMP File database
B. Image database
C. Topology database
D. EMM database
E. Encrypted Media database
Answer: BD

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NO.6 What is OpenStorage?
A. the new Symantec physical disk array
B. the software layer that interfaces with any type of disk
C. the Veritas NetBackup 6.5 service that manages disks
D. a new term for a Veritas NetBackup 6.5 Disk Storage Unit
Answer: B

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NO.7 In Veritas NetBackup 6.5, what is a backup policy?
A. a set of associations defining which Backup Creation Wizard will run with which clients
B. a schedule defining when a given backup will execute its full or incremental sessions
C. a list of parameters that define the details of how a given backup will be performed
D. a list of clients to be backed up and how long the backup can run
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which two cause the Policy Execution Manager to modify the Next Due Jobs worklist? (Select two.)
A. when Enterprise Media Manager initiates a request to modify the worklist
B. when a backup policy is added, modified, or removed
C. when a job is initiated and completed
D. when a user initiated backup is requested
Answer: BC

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NO.9 A Veritas NetBackup 6.5 environment uses a multi-tiered architecture.
Which system functions as the first tier?
A. Media Server
B. NetBackup Operations Manager (NOM) Server
C. Enterprise Client
D. Master Server
Answer: D

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NO.10 What are two features of the Flexible Disk Option? (Select two.)
A. shared disk
B. de-duplication
C. replication
D. advanced disk
Answer: AD

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NO.11 What is it called when an administrator sets up a set of disk volumes that can then be assign to
specific Media Servers, Policies, or Storage Units?
A. OpenStorage
B. Disk Pool
C. Volume Pool
D. Disk Storage Unit
Answer: B

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NO.12 The nbproxy process communicates and queries which Veritas NetBackup 6.5 component?
A. Enterprise Media Manager
B. Database Manager
C. Robotic Control Service
D. Automatic Volume Recognition daemon
Answer: B

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NO.13 What are three options for locating and viewing Veritas NetBackup 6.5 manuals and other
documentation? (Select three.)
A. NetBackup 6.5 media set (the CD-ROMs and/or DVD-ROMs)
B. documentation files in /opt/openv/goodies/hlp (UNIX/Linux)
C. hard copy documentation provided with NetBackup 6.5
D. online on the Symantec Corporation Support website
E. help files in C:\Program Files\Veritas\NetBackup\goodies\help (Windows)
Answer: ACD

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NO.14 Which two components/options of Veritas NetBackup 6.5 include the Bare Metal Restore (BMR) Client?
(Select two.)
A. Standard Client
B. Bare Metal Restore Client
C. Enterprise Client
D. Desktop and Laptop Client
E. Database and Application Pack
Answer: AC

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NO.15 Which statement is true about Veritas NetBackup 6.5 Data Classifications?
A. They control the execution of backups.
B. They schedule client backups.
C. They can be used to bias the deletion of backup images.
D. They are service level agreements.
Answer: C

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NO.16 An administrator wants to back up a VMware virtual machine using the VMware Consolidated Backup
(VCB)interface.
Which component is required to enable VCB backups?
A. Database and Application Pack
B. Enterprise Client
C. Desktop and Laptop Option
D. Workstation Client
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which feature of Veritas NetBackup 6.5 allows backup data to be encrypted at no additional cost?
A. Media Server Encryption
B. NDMP Encryption
C. Client Encryption
D. EMM Server Encryption
Answer: C

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NO.18 What is the purpose of the nbdb_ping command in Veritas NetBackup 6.5?
A. to determine if a Media Server has connectivity to the EMM database
B. to check the health and status of the Sybase ASA database
C. to create a roll-back checkpoint in the NetBackup Binary database
D. to run a simple handshake test between the Master and all Media Servers
Answer: B

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NO.19 A Veritas NetBackup 6.5 client system requests a user-initiated backup by sending a request to port
13720 of the configured Master Server system.
Which Veritas NetBackup service or process receives this request?
A. bpdbm
B. bprd
C. nbpem
D. nbjm
Answer: B

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NO.20 For Veritas NetBackup 6.5, what is a backup image?
A. a complete copy of an existing backup to tape media (from a disk staging unit or tape media)
B. the subset of NetBackup 6.5 catalog metadata that describes and precisely locates the data from one
client
C. all backup data that is backed up from one client in a single stream during a specific backup session
D. a full backup of the data from one client, plus the Bare Metal Restore system image from that same
client
Answer: C

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NO.21 What are two benefits of using OpenStorage to manage and control the use of disk-based storage by
Veritas NetBackup 6.5? (Select two.)
A. A Storage Unit can be configured to fail over from a Disk Pool to tape.
B. Multiple Media Servers can access and share a Disk Pool.
C. A Data Pool can be created, which allows load balancing of both tape and disk.
D. Load balancing can be performed across the Media Servers for a Disk Pool.
Answer: BD

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NO.22 The backup of a client is not running at the expected time, based upon a specific backup policy and
schedule.
Which Veritas NetBackup 6.5 service/process is responsible for the worklist that contains the entry for this
job and for the initiation of the job, based upon the 'due' time of the job?
A. NetBackup Policy Execution Manager
B. NetBackup Job Manager
C. NetBackup Jobs Database Manager
D. NetBackup Backup and Restore Manager
Answer: A

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NO.23 Which two purchased options of Veritas NetBackup 6.5 enable the additional features found in the
Enterprise Disk Foundation? (Select two.)
A. Enterprise Client Option
B. Advanced Vault Option
C. VCB Integration Option
D. OpenStorage Option
E. Flexible Disk Option
Answer: DE

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NO.24 Which three features are included in the Standard Infrastructure capacity tier? (Select three.)
A. Library Based Tape Drive
B. OpenStorage Option
C. Vault Option
D. Shared Storage Option
E. Flexible Disk Option
Answer: ACD

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NO.25 What is the purpose of the nbproxy process?
A. It facilitates communication between the Master Server and the client.
B. It provides communication between multi-threaded processes and PBX.
C. It facilitates communication between the Master Server and the Media Server.
D. It provides communication between multi-threaded processes and single-threaded processes.
Answer: D

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NO.26 An environment already has two robots configured, and the NetBackup Administration Console is being
used to configure a new IBM TLD-type robot. Which name is given to the new robot by default?
A. TLD(2)
B. ROBOT_3
C. TLD(3)
D. IBM.TLD.3
Answer: A

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NO.27 On which two types of Veritas NetBackup 6.5 servers can the Enterprise Media Manager (EMM) be
installed? (Select two.)
A. Master Server
B. Media Server
C. Administration Server
D. Media and Device Server
Answer: AB

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NO.28 Where can you find and access a full list of Veritas NetBackup 6.5 product documentation?
A. under the Help tab in any window of the NetBackup NOM console
B. in the Help (Windows) or hlp (UNIX/Linux) directories on the Master Server
C. online on the Symantec Corporation Support website
D. on any host that has NetBackup component(s) loaded, through the global Help function
Answer: C

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NO.29 The customer runs the Images on Media report to obtain a list of backup images that are on the tape
volume XYZ001.
Which NetBackup Master Server service/process maintains the catalog from which this report is derived?
A. NetBackup Jobs Database Manager
B. NetBackup Service Layer
C. NetBackup Job Manager
D. NetBackup Database Manager
Answer: D

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NO.30 Which two disk-based features support data de-duplication? (Select two.)
A. SAN Disk
B. Flexible Disk
C. OpenStorage Disk
D. PureDisk Storage
Answer: CD

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Exam Code: ST0-058
Exam Name: Symantec (Veritas Storage Foundations 5.1 for Windows (STS))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 96 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-18

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NO.1 What is the Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows component that is a structured collection of
subdisks that represents one copy of the data?
A. plex
B. volume
C. dynamic disk
D. dynamic disk group
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is the Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows component that stores information about
virtual objects?
A. private region
B. public region
C. dynamic disk group
D. dynamic disk
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is the Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows volume layout that achieves redundancy by
striping data with parity across multiple disks?
A. RAID 5
B. striped mirroring
C. concatenation
D. mirroring
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which advantage does the hot relocation feature of Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows
provide?
A. rebuilding of redundancy when there is a disk failure
B. automatic synchronization of replicated data
C. fast synchronization of RAID 5 volumes after a system crash
D. optimized synchronization of stale volume data
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which advantage does the FlashSnap feature of Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows provide?
A. hardware-independent, point-in-time copies of data
B. hardware-independent, synchronous remote copies of data
C. fast recovery of disk group configuration
D. sharing of disk groups across heterogeneous systems
Answer: A

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NO.6 What is the Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows (SFW) component that represents the
available space that SFW can use to assign to volumes?
A. public region
B. private region
C. dynamic disk group
D. dynamic disk
Answer: A

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NO.7 What is the Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows virtual object that is directly accessed by a
filesystem?
A. volume
B. subdisk
C. subvolume
D. dynamic disk
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which advantage does the VxCache feature of Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows provide?
A. improved performance of dynamic volumes
B. hardware-independent, up-to-date remote copies of data
C. tiered storage of data across multiple disk arrays
D. fast recovery of disk group configurations
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which advantage does the Data Change Object (DCO) feature of Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for
Windows provide?
A. optimized resynchronization of stale volume data
B. ability to grow volumes online
C. control of volumes across heterogeneous systems
D. fast resynchronization of mirrored volumes after a system crash
Answer: A

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NO.10 What is the Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows virtual object that holds a single complete
copy of the data?
A. plex
B. volume
C. subdisk
D. LUN
Answer: A

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NO.11 What is the Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows volume layout where data is arranged both
sequentially and contiguously within a single plex?
A. concatenation
B. striping
C. mirroring
D. RAID 5
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which command can you use to set the read policy on a plex in Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for
Windows?
A. vxvol
B. vxplex
C. vxassist
D. vxedit
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which action in the Veritas Enterprise Administrator console should you use to move a set of subdisks
from one dynamic disk group to a new dynamic disk group?
A. Split Dynamic Disk Group
B. Remove Disks from Dynamic Disk Group
C. Move Dynamic Disk Group Objects
D. Join Dynamic Disk Group
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which three advantages does the Veritas Volume Replicator feature of Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1
for Windows provide? (Select three.)
A. hardware-independent copies of data that are consistent
B. dynamic bandwidth throttling
C. sharing of disk groups across heterogeneous systems
D. tiered storage of data across multiple disk arrays
E. replication over multiple TCP connections
Answer: ABE

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NO.15 Which advantage is provided by the Write-order Fidelity feature of Veritas Volume Replicator in Veritas
Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows?
A. consistent secondary volumes
B. fast resynchronization of mirrored secondary volumes
C. RAID 5 logging on secondary volumes
D. fast updates to secondary volumes
Answer: A

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NO.16 What is the smallest unit of storage in Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows?
A. subdisk
B. plex
C. volume
D. partition
Answer: A

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NO.17 What is the Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows virtual object that contains plex objects?
A. volume
B. subdisk
C. disk group
D. dynamic disk
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which advantage is provided by the SmartMove feature in Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for
Windows?
A. reduction of mirror synchronization time
B. rebuilding of redundancy in the case of a disk failure
C. automatic failover in the case of a path failure
D. consistent secondary volumes using Veritas Volume Replicator
Answer: A

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NO.19 What is a best practice when installing Dymanic Multi-pathing for Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for
Windows?
A. have a single physical path to storage
B. turn off the hardware cache on external storage
C. have all physical paths to storage enabled
D. physically remove all the HBAs from the server
Answer: A

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NO.20 What is one difference between a basic disk and a dynamic disk?
A. private region
B. application data
C. volume
D. resides on a single plex
Answer: A

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