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Exam Code: CSSLP
Exam Name: ISC (Certified Secure Software Lifecycle Professional Practice Test)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 349 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-16

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NO.1 Which of the following models uses a directed graph to specify the rights that a subject can transfer to
an object or that a subject can take from another subject?
A. Take-Grant Protection Model
B. Biba Integrity Model
C. Bell-LaPadula Model
D. Access Matrix
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following penetration testing techniques automatically tests every phone line in an
exchange and tries to locate modems that are attached to the network?
A. Demon dialing
B. Sniffing
C. Social engineering
D. Dumpster diving
Answer: A

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NO.3 The LeGrand Vulnerability-Oriented Risk Management method is based on vulnerability analysis and
consists of four principle steps. Which of the following processes does the risk assessment step include?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Remediation of a particular vulnerability
B. Cost-benefit examination of countermeasures
C. Identification of vulnerabilities
D. Assessment of attacks
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.4 You are the project manager for GHY Project and are working to create a risk response for a negative
risk. You and the project team have identified the risk that the project may not complete on time, as
required by the management, due to the creation of the user guide for the software you're creating. You
have elected to hire an external writer in order to satisfy the requirements and to alleviate the risk event.
What type of risk response have you elected to use in this instance?
A. Transference
B. Exploiting
C. Avoidance
D. Sharing
Answer: A

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NO.5 The Information System Security Officer (ISSO) and Information System Security Engineer (ISSE)
play the role of a supporter and advisor, respectively. Which of the following statements are true about
ISSO and ISSE? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. An ISSE manages the security of the information system that is slated for Certification & Accreditation
(C&A).
B. An ISSE provides advice on the continuous monitoring of the information system.
C. An ISSO manages the security of the information system that is slated for Certification & Accreditation
(C&A).
D. An ISSE provides advice on the impacts of system changes. E. An ISSO takes part in the development
activities that are required to implement system changes.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.6 Which of the following is the duration of time and a service level within which a business process must
be restored after a disaster in order to avoid unacceptable consequences associated with a break in
business continuity?
A. RTO
B. RTA
C. RPO
D. RCO
Answer: A

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NO.7 Part of your change management plan details what should happen in the change control system for
your project. Theresa, a junior project manager, asks what the configuration management activities are
for scope changes. You tell her that all of the following are valid configuration management activities
except for which one?
A. Configuration Identification
B. Configuration Verification and Auditing
C. Configuration Status Accounting
D. Configuration Item Costing
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following process areas does the SSE-CMM define in the 'Project and Organizational
Practices' category? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Provide Ongoing Skills and Knowledge
B. Verify and Validate Security
C. Manage Project Risk
D. Improve Organization's System Engineering Process
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.9 According to U.S. Department of Defense (DoD) Instruction 8500.2, there are eight Information
Assurance (IA) areas, and the controls are referred to as IA controls. Which of the following are among
the eight areas of IA defined by DoD? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all
that apply.
A. VI Vulnerability and Incident Management
B. Information systems acquisition, development, and maintenance
C. DC Security Design & Configuration
D. EC Enclave and Computing Environment
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.10 In which of the following types of tests are the disaster recovery checklists distributed to the members
of disaster recovery team and asked to review the assigned checklist?
A. Parallel test
B. Simulation test
C. Full-interruption test
D. Checklist test
Answer: D

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NO.11 You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. You are working on a project and the management
wants a rapid and cost-effective means for establishing priorities for planning risk responses in your
project. Which risk management process can satisfy management's objective for your project?
A. Qualitative risk analysis
B. Historical information
C. Rolling wave planning
D. Quantitative analysis
Answer: A

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NO.12 DoD 8500.2 establishes IA controls for information systems according to the Mission Assurance
Categories (MAC) and confidentiality levels. Which of the following MAC levels requires high integrity and
medium availability?
A. MAC III
B. MAC IV
C. MAC I
D. MAC II
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which of the following processes culminates in an agreement between key players that a system in its
current configuration and operation provides adequate protection controls?
A. Information Assurance (IA)
B. Information systems security engineering (ISSE)
C. Certification and accreditation (C&A)
D. Risk Management
Answer: C

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NO.14 You work as a Network Auditor for Net Perfect Inc. The company has a Windows-based network. While
auditing the company's network, you are facing problems in searching the faults and other entities that
belong to it. Which of the following risks may occur due to the existence of these problems?
A. Residual risk
B. Secondary risk
C. Detection risk
D. Inherent risk
Answer: C

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NO.15 In which of the following testing methodologies do assessors use all available documentation and work
under no constraints, and attempt to circumvent the security features of an information system?
A. Full operational test
B. Penetration test
C. Paper test
D. Walk-through test
Answer: B

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NO.16 What are the various activities performed in the planning phase of the Software Assurance Acquisition
process? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Develop software requirements.
B. Implement change control procedures.
C. Develop evaluation criteria and evaluation plan.
D. Create acquisition strategy.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.17 Microsoft software security expert Michael Howard defines some heuristics for determining code review
in "A Process for Performing Security Code Reviews". Which of the following heuristics increase the
application's attack surface? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Code written in C/C++/assembly language
B. Code listening on a globally accessible network interface
C. Code that changes frequently
D. Anonymously accessible code
E. Code that runs by default
F. Code that runs in elevated context
Answer: B,D,E,F

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NO.18 Which of the following individuals inspects whether the security policies, standards, guidelines, and
procedures are efficiently performed in accordance with the company's stated security objectives?
A. Information system security professional
B. Data owner
C. Senior management
D. Information system auditor
Answer: D

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NO.19 John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned the project of testing the security
of www.we-are-secure.com. In order to do so, he performs the following steps of the pre-attack phase
successfully: Information gathering Determination of network range Identification of active systems
Location of open ports and applications Now, which of the following tasks should he perform next?
A. Perform OS fingerprinting on the We-are-secure network.
B. Map the network of We-are-secure Inc.
C. Install a backdoor to log in remotely on the We-are-secure server.
D. Fingerprint the services running on the we-are-secure network.
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which of the following security design patterns provides an alternative by requiring that a user's
authentication credentials be verified by the database before providing access to that user's data?
A. Secure assertion
B. Authenticated session
C. Password propagation
D. Account lockout
Answer: C

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NO.21 .Which of the following cryptographic system services ensures that information will not be disclosed to
any unauthorized person on a local network?
A. Authentication
B. Integrity
C. Non-repudiation
D. Confidentiality
Answer: D

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NO.22 Which of the following organizations assists the President in overseeing the preparation of the federal
budget and to supervise its administration in Executive Branch agencies?
A. OMB
B. NIST
C. NSA/CSS
D. DCAA
Answer: A

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NO.23 You work as a Security Manager for Tech Perfect Inc. You have set up a SIEM server for the following
purposes: Analyze the data from different log sources Correlate the events among the log entries Identify
and prioritize significant events Initiate responses to events if required One of your log monitoring staff
wants to know the features of SIEM product that will help them in these purposes. What features will you
recommend? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Asset information storage and correlation
B. Transmission confidentiality protection
C. Incident tracking and reporting
D. Security knowledge base
E. Graphical user interface
Answer: A,C,D,E

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NO.24 Which of the following roles is also known as the accreditor?
A. Data owner
B. Chief Risk Officer
C. Chief Information Officer
D. Designated Approving Authority
Answer: D

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NO.25 DRAG DROP
Drop the appropriate value to complete the formula.
Answer:

NO.26 The National Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (NIACAP) is the minimum
standard process for the certification and accreditation of computer and telecommunications systems that
handle U.S. national security information. Which of the following participants are required in a NIACAP
security assessment.?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Certification agent
B. Designated Approving Authority
C. IS program manager
D. Information Assurance Manager
E. User representative
Answer: A,B,C,E

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NO.27 Which of the following types of redundancy prevents attacks in which an attacker can get physical
control of a machine, insert unauthorized software, and alter data?
A. Data redundancy
B. Hardware redundancy
C. Process redundancy
D. Application redundancy
Answer: C

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NO.28 Which of the following DITSCAP C&A phases takes place between the signing of the initial version of
the SSAA and the formal accreditation of the system?
A. Phase 4
B. Phase 3
C. Phase 1
D. Phase 2
Answer: D

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NO.29 CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with an appropriate phrase. models address specifications, requirements, design,
verification and validation, and maintenance activities.
A. Life cycle
Answer: A

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NO.30 Adam works as a Computer Hacking Forensic Investigator for a garment company in the United States.
A project has been assigned to him to investigate a case of a disloyal employee who is suspected of
stealing design of the garments, which belongs to the company and selling those garments of the same
design under different brand name. Adam investigated that the company does not have any policy related
to the copy of design of the garments. He also investigated that the trademark under which the employee
is selling the garments is almost identical to the original trademark of the company. On the grounds of
which of the following laws can the employee be prosecuted?
A. Espionage law
B. Trademark law
C. Cyber law
D. Copyright law
Answer: B

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Exam Code: CISSP-ISSAP
Exam Name: ISC (CISSP-ISSAP - Information Systems Security Architecture Professional)
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Total Q&A: 237 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-16

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NO.1 Which of the following types of attack can be used to break the best physical and logical security
mechanism to gain access to a system?
A. Social engineering attack
B. Cross site scripting attack
C. Mail bombing
D. Password guessing attack
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following security devices is presented to indicate some feat of service, a special
accomplishment, a symbol of authority granted by taking an oath, a sign of legitimate employment or
student status, or as a simple means of identification?
A. Sensor
B. Alarm
C. Motion detector
D. Badge
Answer: D

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NO.3 A user is sending a large number of protocol packets to a network in order to saturate its resources and
to disrupt connections to prevent communications between services. Which type of attack is this?
A. Denial-of-Service attack
B. Vulnerability attack
C. Social Engineering attack
D. Impersonation attack
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following protocols is an alternative to certificate revocation lists (CRL) and allows the
authenticity of a certificate to be immediately verified?
A. RSTP
B. SKIP
C. OCSP
D. HTTP
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following is used to authenticate asymmetric keys?
A. Digital signature
B. MAC Address
C. Demilitarized zone (DMZ)
D. Password
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following is a method for transforming a message into a masked form, together with a way
of undoing the transformation to recover the message?
A. Cipher
B. CrypTool
C. Steganography
D. MIME
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following terms refers to a mechanism which proves that the sender really sent a
particular message?
A. Integrity
B. Confidentiality
C. Authentication
D. Non-repudiation
Answer: D

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NO.8 Adam works as a Security Analyst for Umbrella Inc. CEO of the company ordered him to implement
two-factor authentication for the employees to access their networks. He has told him that he would like to
use some type of hardware device in tandem with a security or identifying pin number. Adam decides to
implement smart cards but they are not cost effective. Which of the following types of hardware devices
will Adam use to implement two-factor authentication?
A. Biometric device
B. One Time Password
C. Proximity cards
D. Security token
Answer: D

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NO.9 You are the Security Consultant advising a company on security methods. This is a highly secure
location that deals with sensitive national defense related data. They are very concerned about physical
security as they had a breach last month. In that breach an individual had simply grabbed a laptop and
ran out of the building. Which one of the following would have been most effective in preventing this?
A. Not using laptops.
B. Keeping all doors locked with a guard.
C. Using a man-trap.
D. A sign in log.
Answer: C

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NO.10 You work as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company wants to encrypt its e-mails. Which
of the following will you use to accomplish this?
A. PGP
B. PPTP
C. IPSec
D. NTFS
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which of the following protocols multicasts messages and information among all member devices in an
IP multicast group?
A. ARP
B. ICMP
C. TCP
D. IGMP
Answer: D

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NO.12 IPsec VPN provides a high degree of data privacy by establishing trust points between communicating
devices and data encryption. Which of the following encryption methods does IPsec VPN use? Each
correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. MD5
B. LEAP
C. AES
D. 3DES
Answer: C,D

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NO.13 You want to implement a network topology that provides the best balance for regional topologies in
terms of the number of virtual circuits, redundancy, and performance while establishing a WAN network.
Which of the following network topologies will you use to accomplish the task?
A. Bus topology
B. Fully meshed topology
C. Star topology
D. Partially meshed topology
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which of the following terms refers to the method that allows or restricts specific types of packets from
crossing over the firewall.?
A. Hacking
B. Packet filtering
C. Web caching
D. Spoofing
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which of the following elements of planning gap measures the gap between the total potential for the
market and the actual current usage by all the consumers in the market?
A. Project gap
B. Product gap
C. Competitive gap
D. Usage gap
Answer: D

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NO.16 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. He wants users to access only those resources
that are required for them. Which of the following access control models will he use?
A. Policy Access Control
B. Mandatory Access Control
C. Discretionary Access Control
D. Role-Based Access Control
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which of the following statements about a stream cipher are true? Each correct answer represents a
complete solution. Choose three.
A. It typically executes at a higher speed than a block cipher.
B. It divides a message into blocks for processing.
C. It typically executes at a slower speed than a block cipher.
D. It divides a message into bits for processing.
E. It is a symmetric key cipher.
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.18 Peter works as a Network Administrator for Net World Inc. The company wants to allow remote users to
connect and access its private network through a dial-up connection via the Internet. All the data will be
sent across a public network. For security reasons, the management wants the data sent through the
Internet to be encrypted. The company plans to use a Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP) connection.
Which communication protocol will Peter use to accomplish the task?
A. IP Security (IPSec)
B. Microsoft Point-to-Point Encryption (MPPE)
C. Pretty Good Privacy (PGP)
D. Data Encryption Standard (DES)
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which of the following types of firewall functions at the Session layer of OSI model?
A. Circuit-level firewall
B. Application-level firewall
C. Packet filtering firewall
D. Switch-level firewall
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which of the following does PEAP use to authenticate the user inside an encrypted tunnel? Each
correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. GTC
B. MS-CHAP v2
C. AES
D. RC4
Answer: A,B

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Exam Code: CISSP
Exam Name: ISC (Certified Information Systems Security Professional )
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Total Q&A: 2137 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-16

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NO.1 In which one of the following documents is the assignment of individual roles and
responsibilities MOST appropriately defined?
A. Security policy
B. Enforcement guidelines
C. Acceptable use policy
D. Program manual
Answer: C

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NO.2 What are the three fundamental principles of security?
A.) Accountability, confidentiality, and integrity
B.) Confidentiality, integrity, and availability
C.) Integrity, availability, and accountability
D.) Availability, accountability, and confidentiality
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following describes elements that create reliability and stability in networks
and systems and which assures that connectivity is accessible when needed?
A.) Availability
B.) Acceptability
C.) Confidentiality
D.) Integrity
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which one of the following is an important characteristic of an information security policy?
A. Identifies major functional areas of information.
B. Quantifies the effect of the loss of the information.
C. Requires the identification of information owners.
D. Lists applications that support the business function.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which one of the following statements describes management controls that are instituted to
implement a security policy?
A. They prevent users from accessing any control function.
B. They eliminate the need for most auditing functions.
C. They may be administrative, procedural, or technical.
D. They are generally inexpensive to implement.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Ensuring the integrity of business information is the PRIMARY concern of
A. Encryption Security
B. Procedural Security.
C. Logical Security
D. On-line Security
Answer: B

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NO.7 Most computer attacks result in violation of which of the following security properties?
A. Availability
B. Confidentiality
C. Integrity and control
D. All of the choices.
Answer: D

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NO.8 When developing an information security policy, what is the FIRST step that should be taken?
A. Obtain copies of mandatory regulations.
B. Gain management approval.
C. Seek acceptance from other departments.
D. Ensure policy is compliant with current working practices.
Answer: B

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NO.9 A significant action has a state that enables actions on an ADP system to be traced to individuals
who may then be held responsible. The action does NOT include:
A. Violations of security policy.
B. Attempted violations of security policy.
C. Non-violations of security policy.
D. Attempted violations of allowed actions.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Why must senior management endorse a security policy?
A. So that they will accept ownership for security within the organization.
B. So that employees will follow the policy directives.
C. So that external bodies will recognize the organizations commitment to security.
D. So that they can be held legally accountable.
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which one of the following should NOT be contained within a computer policy?
A. Definition of management expectations.
B. Responsibilities of individuals and groups for protected information.
C. Statement of senior executive support.
D. Definition of legal and regulatory controls.
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which must bear the primary responsibility for determining the level of protection needed
for information systems resources?
A.) IS security specialists
B.) Senior Management
C.) Seniors security analysts
D.) system auditors
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which one of the following is NOT a fundamental component of a Regulatory Security Policy?
A. What is to be done.
B. When it is to be done.
C. Who is to do it.
D. Why is it to be done
Answer: C

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NO.14 A security policy would include all of the following EXCEPT
A. Background
B. Scope statement
C. Audit requirements
D. Enforcement
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which of the following would be the first step in establishing an information security
program?
A.) Adoption of a corporate information security policy statement
B.) Development and implementation of an information security standards manual
C.) Development of a security awareness-training program
D.) Purchase of security access control software
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which of the following embodies all the detailed actions that personnel are required to
follow?
A.) Standards
B.) Guidelines
C.) Procedures
D.) Baselines
Answer: C

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NO.17 An area of the Telecommunications and Network Security domain that directly affects the
Information Systems Security tenet of Availability can be defined as:
A.) Netware availability
B.) Network availability
C.) Network acceptability
D.) Network accountability
Answer: B

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NO.18 Network Security is a
A.) Product
B.) protocols
C.) ever evolving process
D.) quick-fix solution
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which of the following are objectives of an information systems security program?
A. Threats, vulnerabilities, and risks
B. Security, information value, and threats
C. Integrity, confidentiality, and availability.
D. Authenticity, vulnerabilities, and costs.
Answer: C

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NO.20 In an organization, an Information Technology security function should:
A.) Be a function within the information systems functions of an organization
B.) Report directly to a specialized business unit such as legal, corporate security or insurance
C.) Be lead by a Chief Security Officer and report directly to the CEO
D.) Be independent but report to the Information Systems function
Answer: C

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NO.21 Which of the following choices is NOT part of a security policy?
A.) definition of overall steps of information security and the importance of security
B.) statement of management intend, supporting the goals and principles of information security
C.) definition of general and specific responsibilities for information security management
D.) description of specific technologies used in the field of information security
Answer: D

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NO.22 The Structures, transmission methods, transport formats, and security measures that are
used to provide integrity, availability, and authentication, and confidentiality for
transmissions over private and public communications networks and media includes:
A.) The Telecommunications and Network Security domain
B.) The Telecommunications and Netware Security domain
C.) The Technical communications and Network Security domain
D.) The Telnet and Security domain
Answer: A

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NO.23 Which one of the following is the MOST crucial link in the computer security chain?
A. Access controls
B. People
C. Management
D. Awareness programs
Answer: C

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NO.24 Making sure that the data is accessible when and where it is needed is which of the
following?
A.) Confidentiality
B.) integrity
C.) acceptability
D.) availability
Answer: D

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NO.25 Which of the following department managers would be best suited to oversee the
development of an information security policy?
A.) Information Systems
B.) Human Resources
C.) Business operations
D.) Security administration
Answer: C

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NO.26 Which of the following defines the intent of a system security policy?
A. A definition of the particular settings that have been determined to provide optimum security.
B. A brief, high-level statement defining what is and is not permitted during the operation of the system.
C. A definition of those items that must be excluded on the system.
D. A listing of tools and applications that will be used to protect the system.
Answer: A

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NO.27 All of the following are basic components of a security policy EXCEPT the
A. definition of the issue and statement of relevant terms.
B. statement of roles and responsibilities
C. statement of applicability and compliance requirements.
D. statement of performance of characteristics and requirements.
Answer: D

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NO.28 Security is a process that is:
A. Continuous
B. Indicative
C. Examined
D. Abnormal
Answer: A

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NO.29 What is the function of a corporate information security policy?
A. Issue corporate standard to be used when addressing specific security problems.
B. Issue guidelines in selecting equipment, configuration, design, and secure operations.
C. Define the specific assets to be protected and identify the specific tasks which must be completed to
secure them.
D. Define the main security objectives which must be achieved and the security framework to meet
business
objectives.
Answer: D

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NO.30 Which of the following prevents, detects, and corrects errors so that the integrity,
availability, and confidentiality of transactions over networks may be maintained?
A.) Communications security management and techniques
B.) Networks security management and techniques
C.) Clients security management and techniques
D.) Servers security management and techniques
Answer: A

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Exam Code: CISSP-ISSMP
Exam Name: ISC (CISSP-ISSMP - Information Systems Security Management Professional)
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Last Update: 2013-12-03

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NO.1 Which of the following security models dictates that subjects can only access objects through
applications?
A. Biba-Clark model
B. Bell-LaPadula
C. Clark-Wilson
D. Biba model
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following subphases are defined in the maintenance phase of the life cycle models?
A. Change control
B. Configuration control
C. Request control
D. Release control
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.3 Which of the following types of activities can be audited for security? Each correct answer represents a
complete solution. Choose three.
A. Data downloading from the Internet
B. File and object access
C. Network logons and logoffs
D. Printer access
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.4 Mark works as a security manager for SoftTech Inc. He is involved in the BIA phase to create a
document to be used to help understand what impact a disruptive event would have on the business. The
impact might be financial or operational. Which of the following are the objectives related to the above
phase in which Mark is involved? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose three.
A. Resource requirements identification
B. Criticality prioritization
C. Down-time estimation
D. Performing vulnerability assessment
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.5 Which of the following recovery plans includes specific strategies and actions to deal with specific
variances to assumptions resulting in a particular security problem, emergency, or state of affairs?
A. Business continuity plan
B. Disaster recovery plan
C. Continuity of Operations Plan
D. Contingency plan
Answer: D

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NO.6 You work as a Senior Marketing Manger for Umbrella Inc. You find out that some of the software
applications on the systems were malfunctioning and also you were not able to access your remote
desktop session. You suspected that some malicious attack was performed on the network of the
company. You immediately called the incident response team to handle the situation who enquired the
Network Administrator to acquire all relevant information regarding the malfunctioning. The Network
Administrator informed the incident response team that he was reviewing the security of the network
which caused all these problems. Incident response team announced that this was a controlled event not
an incident. Which of the following steps of an incident handling process was performed by the incident
response team?
A. Containment
B. Eradication
C. Preparation
D. Identification
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following terms refers to a mechanism which proves that the sender really sent a
particular message?
A. Non-repudiation
B. Confidentiality
C. Authentication
D. Integrity
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following protocols is used with a tunneling protocol to provide security?
A. FTP
B. IPX/SPX
C. IPSec
D. EAP
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which of the following fields of management focuses on establishing and maintaining consistency of a
system's or product's performance and its functional and physical attributes with its requirements, design,
and operational information throughout its life?
A. Configuration management
B. Risk management
C. Procurement management
D. Change management
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which of the following is NOT a valid maturity level of the Software Capability Maturity Model (CMM)?
A. Managed level
B. Defined level
C. Fundamental level
D. Repeatable level
Answer: C

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NO.11 Joseph works as a Software Developer for Web Tech Inc. He wants to protect the algorithms and the
techniques of programming that he uses in developing an application. Which of the following laws are
used to protect a part of software?
A. Code Security law
B. Trademark laws
C. Copyright laws
D. Patent laws
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which of the following characteristics are described by the DIAP Information Readiness Assessment
function? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. It performs vulnerability/threat analysis assessment.
B. It identifies and generates IA requirements.
C. It provides data needed to accurately assess IA readiness.
D. It provides for entry and storage of individual system data.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.13 Which of the following involves changing data prior to or during input to a computer in an effort to
commit fraud?
A. Data diddling
B. Wiretapping
C. Eavesdropping
D. Spoofing
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which of the following is the process performed between organizations that have unique hardware or
software that cannot be maintained at a hot or warm site?
A. Cold sites arrangement
B. Business impact analysis
C. Duplicate processing facilities
D. Reciprocal agreements
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which of the following are the ways of sending secure e-mail messages over the Internet.? Each correct
answer represents a complete solution. (Choose two.)
A. TLS
B. PGP
C. S/MIME
D. IPSec
Answer: B,C

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NO.16 Which of the following relies on a physical characteristic of the user to verify his identity?
A. Social Engineering
B. Kerberos v5
C. Biometrics
D. CHAP
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which of the following is the best method to stop vulnerability attacks on a Web server?
A. Using strong passwords
B. Configuring a firewall
C. Implementing the latest virus scanner
D. Installing service packs and updates
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which of the following penetration testing phases involves reconnaissance or data gathering?
A. Attack phase
B. Pre-attack phase
C. Post-attack phase
D. Out-attack phase
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which of the following BCP teams is the first responder and deals with the immediate effects of the
disaster?
A. Emergency-management team
B. Damage-assessment team
C. Off-site storage team
D. Emergency action team
Answer: D

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NO.20 You work as a Network Administrator for ABC Inc. The company uses a secure wireless network. John
complains to you that his computer is not working properly. What type of security audit do you need to
conduct to resolve the problem?
A. Operational audit
B. Dependent audit
C. Non-operational audit
D. Independent audit
Answer: D

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Exam Code: CISSP-ISSEP
Exam Name: ISC (CISSP-ISSEP - Information Systems Security Engineering Professional)
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NO.1 Which of the following professionals plays the role of a monitor and takes part in the organization's
configuration management process
A. Chief Information Officer
B. Authorizing Official
C. Common Control Provider
D. Senior Agency Information Security Officer
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following documents is defined as a source document, which is most useful for the ISSE
when classifying the needed security functionality
A. Information Protection Policy (IPP)
B. IMM
C. System Security Context
D. CONOPS
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following is a type of security management for computers and networks in order to identify
security breaches.?
A. IPS
B. IDS
C. ASA
D. EAP
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following documents were developed by NIST for conducting Certification & Accreditation
(C&A) Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. NIST Special Publication 800-59
B. NIST Special Publication 800-60
C. NIST Special Publication 800-37A
D. NIST Special Publication 800-37
E. NIST Special Publication 800-53
F. NIST Special Publication 800-53A
Answer: A,B,D,E,F

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NO.5 Which of the following email lists is written for the technical audiences, and provides weekly
summaries of security issues, new vulnerabilities, potential impact, patches and workarounds, as well as
the actions recommended to mitigate risk
A. Cyber Security Tip
B. Cyber Security Alert
C. Cyber Security Bulletin
D. Technical Cyber Security Alert
Answer: C

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NO.6 FITSAF stands for Federal Information Technology Security Assessment Framework. It is a
methodology for assessing the security of information systems. Which of the following FITSAF levels
shows that the procedures and controls are tested and reviewed?
A. Level 4
B. Level 5
C. Level 1
D. Level 2
E. Level 3
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following federal laws is designed to protect computer data from theft
A. Federal Information Security Management Act (FISMA)
B. Computer Fraud and Abuse Act (CFAA)
C. Government Information Security Reform Act (GISRA)
D. Computer Security Act
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following tasks obtains the customer agreement in planning the technical effort
A. Task 9
B. Task 11
C. Task 8
D. Task 10
Answer: B

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NO.9 Part of your change management plan details what should happen in the change control system for
your project. Theresa, a junior project manager, asks what the configuration management activities are
for scope changes. You tell her that all of the following are valid configuration management activities
except for which one
A. Configuration Item Costing
B. Configuration Identification
C. Configuration Verification and Auditing
D. Configuration Status Accounting
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which of the following security controls is a set of layered security services that address
communications and data security problems in the emerging Internet and intranet application space
A. Internet Protocol Security (IPSec)
B. Common data security architecture (CDSA)
C. File encryptors
D. Application program interface (API)
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which of the following processes culminates in an agreement between key players that a system in its
current configuration and operation provides adequate protection controls
A. Certification and accreditation (C&A)
B. Risk Management
C. Information systems security engineering (ISSE)
D. Information Assurance (IA)
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which of the following professionals is responsible for starting the Certification & Accreditation (C&A)
process
A. Authorizing Official
B. Information system owner
C. Chief Information Officer (CIO)
D. Chief Risk Officer (CRO)
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which of the following types of firewalls increases the security of data packets by remembering the state
of connection at the network and the session layers as they pass through the filter
A. Stateless packet filter firewall
B. PIX firewall
C. Stateful packet filter firewall
D. Virtual firewall
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which of the following elements of Registration task 4 defines the system's external interfaces as well
as the purpose of each external interface, and the relationship between the interface and the system
A. System firmware
B. System software
C. System interface
D. System hardware
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which of the following is used to indicate that the software has met a defined quality level and is ready
for mass distribution either by electronic means or by physical media
A. ATM
B. RTM
C. CRO
D. DAA
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which of the following guidelines is recommended for engineering, protecting, managing, processing,
and controlling national security and sensitive (although unclassified) information
A. Federal Information Processing Standard (FIPS)
B. Special Publication (SP)
C. NISTIRs (Internal Reports)
D. DIACAP by the United States Department of Defense (DoD)
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which of the following protocols is used to establish a secure terminal to a remote network device
A. WEP
B. SMTP
C. SSH
D. IPSec
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which of the following Security Control Assessment Tasks gathers the documentation and supporting
materials essential for the assessment of the security controls in the information system
A. Security Control Assessment Task 4
B. Security Control Assessment Task 3
C. Security Control Assessment Task 1
D. Security Control Assessment Task 2
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which of the following elements are described by the functional requirements task Each correct
answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Coverage
B. Accuracy
C. Quality
D. Quantity
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.20 The Phase 4 of DITSCAP C&A is known as Post Accreditation. This phase starts after the system has
been accredited in Phase 3. What are the process activities of this phase Each correct answer represents
a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Security operations
B. Continue to review and refine the SSAA
C. Change management
D. Compliance validation
E. System operations
F. Maintenance of the SSAA
Answer: A,C,D,E,F

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