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Exam Code: HP2-Z17
Exam Name: HP (Selling HP Enterprise Network Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 69 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-23

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NO.1 The A-Series portfolio is perfect for which customers?
A. companies with small and/or simple deployments
B. companies with large and/or complex deployments
C. small companies
D. large companies
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which recent acquisition demonstrates HP's commitment to provide the best enterprise networking
solution?
A. Palm
B. Nortel
C. Citrix
D. 3Com/H3C
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which environment ensures that all resources and processes are controlled by
a shared-services engine that provisions and adapts application environments to instantly respond to
business demands?
A. Converged Infrastructure
B. Management Infrastructure
C. Data Infrastructure
D. Monitoring Infrastructure
Answer: A

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NO.4 A customer has a legacy, proprietary technology that lacks choice. You tell the customer that HP
Networking solutions are open. What else should you tell this customer about the value of HP Networking
solutions?
A. HP Networking solutions provide up to 10% lower cost of ownership.
B. HP Networking solutions provide up to 15% lower cost of ownership.
C. HP Networking solutions provide up to 35% lower cost of ownership.
D. HP Networking solutions provide up to 65% lower cost of ownership.
Answer: D

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NO.5 A customer considering an HP Networking solution is concerned about power usage. You inform the
customer that Miercom certified HP Networking solutions as "Green." What did Miercom find concerning
HP switch energy consumption?
A. HP switches use as much as 20% less energy than the competition.
B. HP switches use as much as 30% less energy than the competition.
C. HP switches use as much as 40% less energy than the competition.
D. HP switches use as much as 50% less energy than the competition.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP0-J44
Exam Name: HP (Advanced SAN Architecture)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-23

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NO.1 While designing the SAN to meet your customer's throughput requirements, you need to configure
several 4Gb/s B-Series SAN switches with inter-switch links. What is the maximum throughput available
using a trunk group between 2 switches?
A. 8Gb/s
B. 16Gb/s
C. 32Gb/s
D. 64Gb/s
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which blocksize should you choose for a profile requiring performance-critical random access
applications?
A. 2,048 bytes.
B. 4,096 bytes
C. 8,192 bytes
D. 16,384 bytes
Answer: A

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NO.3 When considering a proof of concept model for a customer with a Customer Relation Database (CRM)
environment requiring high bandwidth, which size do you expect for the majority of I/O requests?
A. less than 8K
B. less than 100k
C. greater than 1MB
D. greater than 100k
Answer: D

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NO.4 During a SAN switch assessment on a B-series switch, a SAN architect notices that the switch is
partitioned in a set of logical switches. What is the name of this feature?
A. Inter VSAN Routing
B. Transparent Routing
C. Virtual Fabric
D. VSAN
Answer: C

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NO.5 What are the primary responsibilities of the SAN architect? (Select three.)
A. Ensuring data availability
B. Solving revision conflicts
C. Solving management problems
D. Ensuring data protection
E. Solving SAN scalability issues
F. Ensuring database consistency or validity
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.6 What must you consider before you merge an old fabric with a new SAN implementation?
A. Active array controller ports must be taken offline to allow both fabrics to merge.
B. Zone configurations must be disabled on the existing fabrics.
C. New switches must be set to the same domain ID as the existing switches.
D. Each switch in the merged fabric must have a unique domain ID.
Answer: D

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NO.7 When considering the cabling of a new SAN environment with 8Gb/s switches, what is the maximum
distance per cable segment using OM2 fiber optic cables?
A. 50 meters
B. 150 meters
C. 380 meters
D. 500 meters
Answer: A

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NO.8 Continuous Access XP software products allow host-independent, real-time, remote data mirroring
between XP disk arrays. If you are designing a solution that requires no performance impact on the host
application, but the link between sites is not necessarily highly available, what is the best choice?
A. CA for XP Sync
B. CA for XPAsync
C. CA for XP Journal
D. CA for XP Link Extension
Answer: C

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NO.9 When designing a solution for a customer, there are different ways of looking at or viewing the SAN
architecture that is part of that solution. What are two of the four SAN architecture views? (Select two.)
A. Business view
B. SAN functional view
C. Storage centric view
D. Stakeholder view
E. SAN switch view
Answer: A,B

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NO.10 Which HP tool can be used to validate the integrity of your customer's current SAN environment prior to
a SAN upgrade?
A. HPStorageWorks SAN Validation
B. HPStorageWorks SAN Sizer
C. HPStorageWorks SAN Designer
D. HPStorageWorks Essentials SAN Visibility
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP0-Y30
Exam Name: HP (Implementing HP Networking Technologies)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 137 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-23

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NO.1 You must configure SSH on an HP A7500 switch. Which item must be generated on the switch?
A. passphrase
B. shared secret
C. self-signed certificate
D. encryption keys
Answer: D

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NO.2 Click the Exhibit button.
Which statement accurately describes the state of Gigabit Ethernet 3/0/12 in the HP A-Series switch
configuration shown in the exhibit?
A. The interface will be a tagged member of VLAN 12.
B. The interface will be an untagged member of VLAN 1.
C. The interface will be an untagged member of VLAN 12.
D. The interface will drop all incoming packets for VLAN 12.
Answer: C

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NO.3 At the CLI of an HP E5406 zl switch, you have assigned ports A1-A4 to VLAN 70 as untagged
members. All other configuration parameters on the E5406 zl are at default settings. The E5406 zl is
connected through port B1 to an HP E8212 zl switch. The E8212 zl has been configured with an IP
interface associated with VLAN 70, and IP routing has been enabled. On the E5406 zl, what must you do
to enable the E8212 zl to act as default gateway for VLAN 70 clients?
A. Define an IP interface in VLAN 70.
B. Configure port B1 to be a member of VLAN 70.
C. Define the VLAN 70 IP address of the E8212 zl as the default gateway.
D. Add a static route to the E8212 to the E5406 zl route table.
Answer: B

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NO.4 You have entered the following command at the CLI of an HP E5400 zl Series switch. Switch(vlan-1)# ip
address 192.168.1.225/24
The switch's other VLAN and IP parameters are at factory defaults. While testing this configuration, you
find that the switch cannot ping a server located at 192.168.2.22. You have confirmed the server is up and
available. This server is located in a data center not directly connected to your switch.
What must you configure on the switch to enable connectivity between these two devices?
A. Add a default gateway.
B. Modify the IP address to 192.168.1.225/26.
C. Enable IP routing.
D. Add the server to allowed hosts list.
Answer: A

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NO.5 You have uploaded an application file named "A12500.bin" to an HP A12500 switch.
Which command ensures this file is used during the next boot cycle?
A. boot-file cf:/A12500.bin main
B. load appfile cf:/A12500.bin main
C. boot-loader file cf:/A12500.bin main
D. set boot file cf:/A12500.bin main
Answer: C

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NO.6 You must configure VLANs and ports on an HP A7500 switch at default settings. What is the effect of
the following commands?
[SW-Gigabit-Ethernet1/0/1]port link-type trunk [SW-Gigabit-Ethernet1/0/1]port trunk permit vlan 100 101
A. The switch will forward traffic for VLANs 100 and 101 with 802.1Q tags. Traffic for VLAN 1 will be
untagged. Traffic for all other VLANs will be discarded.
B. The switch will add port 1/0/1 to a Link Aggregation Group (LAG) that is a tagged member of VLANs
100 and 101.
C. The switch will forward traffic for VLANs 100 and 101, but will discard traffic for all other VLANs.
D. The switch will forward VLAN 101 traffic with 802.1Q tags. VLAN 100 traffic will be untagged.
Answer: A

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NO.7 You have initiated a console session on an HP A-Series switch at default settings. What is your
privilege level?
A. Visit (0)
B. Monitor (1)
C. System (2)
D. Manage (3)
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which interface is available for managing A-Series switches at factory default settings?
A. Telnet
B. menu
C. console
D. web
Answer: C

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NO.9 What is the effect of the following command entered at the CLI of an HP E5400 zl Series switch at
factory default settings.?
Switch# exit
A. The user is logged out of the console.
B. The privilege level moves from manager to operator.
C. Unsaved configuration changes are deleted.
D. The user exits from configuration mode.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which HP E-Series switch features redundant management and fabric modules?
A. E2910 al
B. E8212 zl
C. E5412 zl
D. E4208 vl
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which view is indicated by the following prompt on an HP A7500 switch? <A7500>
A. system
B. operator
C. user
D. console
Answer: C

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NO.12 You must define a hostname on an HP E5400 zl Series switch. Which configuration context must you
enter to perform this task?
A. manager
B. system
C. administrator
D. global configuration
Answer: D

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NO.13 You must reset the startup configuration of an HP A-Series switch to factory defaults. Which CLI view
will enable you to complete this task?
A. manager view
B. global configuration view
C. system view
D. user view
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which type of port can handle more than one untagged VLAN on an HP A-Series switch?
A. trunk
B. access
C. aggregated
D. hybrid
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which A-Series switch is designed for the large data center and the enterprise core?
A. A5820
B. A7500
C. A9500
D. A12500
Answer: D

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NO.16 What is the effect of the following command entered at the CLI of an HP E5400 zl Series switch?
Switch(vlan-100)# end
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A. The CLI displays the Operator prompt.
B. The CLI displays the Manager prompt.
C. VLAN 100 is deleted from the switch.
D. The CLI displays the global configuration prompt.
Answer: D

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NO.17 What is a fit Access Point?
A. an AP that can provide WLAN services without a controller
B. an AP that has no intelligence and requires a wireless controller
C. an AP that can be deployed autonomously or with a controller
D. an AP that provides some intelligence under the management of a controller
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which HP E-Series switch models are fixed-port switches? (Select two.)
A. E8212 zl
B. E4204 vl
C. E6600-24G
D. E5406 zl
E. E3500-48G yl
Answer: CE

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NO.19 What is the effect of the following command entered at the CLI of an HP E3500 yl switch?
E3500(vlan-44)#interface 23
A. The CLI displays the status of port 23.
B. Port 23 becomes a member of VLAN 44.
C. Port 23 is enabled.
D. The CLI enters the configuration context for port 23.
Answer: D

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NO.20 You must configure a port on an A5800 switch to support protocol-based VLANs and port-based
VLANs. Which port type supports this requirement?
A. hybrid
B. access
C. aggregated
D. trunk
E. tagged
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP2-E33
Exam Name: HP (Selling HP Converged Infrastructure Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-23

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NO.1 How does the focus of sales discussions changes as you become a consultative salesperson?
A. The price of products and services becomes more important.
B. Product features become more important.
C. You sell fewer products and more services.
D. You focus on delivering quantifiable business value.
Answer: D

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NO.2 What is the best way to establish yourself as a trusted advisor to your customers.?
A. Deliver products and services that meet customer expectations.
B. Demonstrate working proofs of concepts for each solution.
C. Help the customer devise metrics to measure their performance.
D. Speak strategically to their business challenges.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which problem do companies experience most often as a result of having virtualized systems?
A. workload distribution control
B. decreased hardware performance
C. bottlenecks on virtual machines
D. virtual sprawl
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.4 According to IDC estimates, discrete purchasing activities in the area of networking, storage andservers
will start combining into a new Converged Infrastructure category. What is the estimatedvalue that this
new category will reach by 2012?
A. $20 billion USD
B. $25 billion USD
C. $30 billion USD
D. $35 billion USD
Answer: D

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NO.5 By up to which percentage can HP BladeSystem Matrix reduce the total cost of ownership?
A. 26%
B. 36%
C. 56%
D. 76%
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP0-M41
Exam Name: HP (HP Universal CMDB 9.x. Software)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 63 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-23

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NO.1 What are the main components of the Data Flow Management architecture? (Select three.)
A. IP range
B. servers
C. discovery adapters
D. domain and credentials
E. database
F. data flow probe
Answer: B,E,F

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NO.2 What are the supported operating systems for the UCMDB application? (Select three.)
A. Sun SPARC Solaris 10
B. Windows 2003 Enterprise (64 bit)
C. Windows 2008 Enterprise (64 bit)
D. SUSE Linux 11 Enterprise (64 bit)
E. Windows 2000, 2003/2008 (32 bit)
F. Red Hat Linux 5 Enterprise/Advanced (64 bit)
Answer: B,C,F

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NO.3 What are best practices for a UCMDB High Availability deployment? (Select three.)
A. UCMDB services run on all the servers in the cluster, but customer components are only active on the
active server.
B. UCMDB services run on all the servers in the cluster and customer components are active on all the
servers.
C. The load balancer should be configured as sticky by session.
D. The load balancer should be configured as sticky by IP.
E. The session keepalive address string contains a ClusterId parameter.
F. The session keepalive address string contains a ServerId parameter.
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.4 What are the roles of CMDB database schemas? (Select two.)
A. to store only the system-wide and management-related metadata for the UCMDB environment
B. to store configuration information that is gathered from the various CMDBs and from the UCMDB
application
C. to store CI changes over a time range
D. to store saved snapshots of the views
E. to store the information that is gathered from third-party applications and tools
Answer: B,E

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NO.5 What does the IT Universe model represent?
A. the structure of all CI Types and their relationships
B. the sets of views defined in the CMDB environment
C. the structure of all CIs and CI Types
D. the data of all CIs and CI Types in the CMDB
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP0-A23
Exam Name: HP (NonStop NS-Series Servers Configuration and Planning)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 74 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-23

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NO.1 How is an NS-series server different from an S-series server?
A. An NS-series server does not ship with built-in batteries for backup power.
B. An NS-series server has a built-in USB port on the maintenance switch.
C. An NS-series server does not require water cooling.
D. An NS-series server does not require air conditioning.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which subsystems or utilities should you use to set up a Daylight Savings Time (DST) transition
table? (Select two.)
A. TIME
B. TACL
C. SCF
D. DSTCOM
E. ADDDST
Answer: B,C

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NO.3 Which equipment does an NS-series system need to detect a power failure RIDE_THRU when
all
AC grid power sources have failed?
A. a site-wide UPS supporting SNMP
B. an R5500 rack-mounted UPS
C. a site-wide UPS supporting SMTP
D. a PDU monitored by OSM
Answer: B

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NO.4 On a 16-processor NonStop NS-series or NB-series system, what is the maximum number of
processors that can be configured in the LAN adapter's access list?
A. 8
B. 10
C. 12
D. 16
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which utility is used to set the number of ServerNet connections per fabric between a CLIM
and
each ServerNet switch?
A. SCF
B. OSM Low-Level Link (LLL)
C. OSM service connection (SC)
D. CLIMCOM
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which cable type is valid for Ethernet connections for a maintenance LAN?
A. SCSI cable
B. MMF type fiber optic cable
C. Category 5 unshielded twisted pair
D. coaxial cable
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which utilities show object files that have been PROGID? (Select two.)
A. TPDC
B. DSAP
C. DCOM
D. FUP
E. PEEK
Answer: B,D

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NO.8 Which tool produces a report recommending disk cache changes based on evaluated
MEASURE
data?
A. NSX
B. SCF
C. GPA
D. XRAY
Answer: C

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NO.9 What is the maximum number of Fiber Channel Disk Modules (FCDMs) that can be daisy
chained
together?
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which subsystem can be used to monitor state changes for a running application on a
NonStop
system?
A. Event Management Service
B. Spooler
C. TMF
D. Kernel Managed Swap Facility
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP2-B67
Exam Name: HP (HP Imaging and Printing Assessment and Design)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 65 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-23

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NO.1 You are on a company tour at customer's site and you notice that stacks of consumables are placed
next to printing devices or in separate rooms. What are possible pain points/risks of this practice? (Select
two.)
A. risk of expiring/non-compatible consumables
B. high storage costs
C. lack of remote device management
D. insufficient service level agreements
Answer: A, B

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NO.2 Which elements are correctly paired with their respective steps in the flow as provided in the
Assessment Methodologies & Measures Overview? (Select two.)
A. Assess - TCO Analysis
B. Analyze - Company Tour
C. Analyze - TCO Analysis
D. Qualify - Business Case
E. Qualify - Company Tour
Answer: A, B

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NO.3 Which statement is true about the Elements of a Corporate Strategy ? (Select two.)
A. The objective
is the aspiration of an organization.
B. The mission
is the quantification or specification of a goal.
C. The goal
is the general statement of aim or purpose.
D. The strategy
is a long-term direction or measure.
E. The vision
is the overriding purpose
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which elements are correctly paired with their respective steps in the flow as provided in the
Assessment Methodologies & Measures Overview.? (Select two.)
A. Assess - Company Tour
B. Assess - Discovery & Design
C. Analyze - Managed Environment Assessment
D. Design - Business Case
E. Analyze - Business Case
Answer: A, B

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NO.5 What are the four steps in the Assessment Methodologies & Measures Overview?
A. Search, Assess, Sell, Service
B. Qualify, Assess, Analyze, Design
C. Interview, Discover, Define, Design
D. Qualify, Assess, Discover, Design
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP2-B76
Exam Name: HP (HP Imaging and Printing Technical Fundamentals)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 59 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-23

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NO.1 What is the purpose of the Quick Copy feature?
A. to allow the image to be viewed on the PC prior to printing
B. to allow the job to be printed on multiple printers simultaneously
C. to allow the user to verify output prior to printing all copies
D. to allow additional copies to be made at the printer without resending the printing job
Answer: D

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NO.2 What happens after a Proof and Hold job is sent to an HP Color LaserJet.?
A. It remains on the hard disk until the printer is switched off.
B. It remains on the hard disk, even when the printer is switched off.
C. It remains in the memory of the printer.
D. it is deleted from the printer.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Prescribe is a common language of which vendor?
A. IBM
B. HP
C. Adobe
D. Kyocera
Answer: D

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NO.4 What is the most time consuming part of the laser printing electronic process?
A. I/O process
B. PS process
C. PCL process
D. page rendering
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which feature from Job Retention do you use to make prints, without wasting paper through document
errors'?
A. Quick Copy
B. Stored Job
C. Secure Printing
D. Proof and Hold
Answer: D

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NO.6 How do you print a job using the Stored Job option?
A. use the driver selection for printing stored jobs
B. use HP Web Jetadmin
C. use the user name you selected on the control panel to view the Stored Job option
D. use the control panel to select the stored job for printing
Answer: D

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NO.7 A graphic arts business is creating images for printing on an offset press. The business is using an HP
Pinter for printing the final proofs. EPS files are often sent to the business to be included in the images
Printed.
Which driver should be used?
A. PCL6
B. PCL5
C. PCL5e
D. PostScript
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which HP technology enhances printer performance and minimizes network traffic?
A. RIP first/transmit later
B. sends once / RIP once
C. transmits once / RIP once
D. transmit once/RIP triple
Answer: C

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NO.9 What is an advantage of PCL 6 over PCL 5c?
A. PCL 6 supports color printing and PCL 5c does not.
B. PCL 6 is compatible with all PCL printers and PCL 5c is not
C. PCL 6 can use object-based commands instead of only HPGL commands.
D. PCL 6 has improved paper handling functions
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which printer driver language uses HPGL commands while printing a bounding box?
A. PCL5
B. PostScript
C. PCL3
D. PCL6
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP2-K20
Exam Name: HP (Supporting HP StorageWorks P2000 Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 67 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-23

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NO.1 What is the minimum number of disks required to create a RAID 50 vdisk?
A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 12
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which transport protocol is used to connect a P2000 G3 MSA to a D270 disk enclosure.?
A. iSCSI
B. Fibre Channel
C. SAS
D. SATA
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which type of hot spare disks are used in a P2000 G3 storage system? (Select two)
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B. global
C. multi-purpose
D. generic
E. local
Answer: B,D

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NO.4 Which RAID level provides the best random mix I/O performance?
A. 3
B. 5
C. 10
D. 50
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which statement is correct regarding the features of a P2000 G3 after an upgrade from a MSA2000 G2
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A. Asynchronous replication can be used in single-controller configurations.
B. The backend operates at 3Gb/s SAS speed.
C. Two 4Gb/s Fibre Channel ports per controller can be used.
D. The snapshot maximum is 255.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP0-D09
Exam Name: HP (Implementing HP Converged Infrastructure Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 132 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-23

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NO.1 .How is Dynamic Power Capping achieved?
A. by disabling cores of a processor when a cap is reached
B. by raising the p-state of a processor when a cap is reached
C. by increasing the clock-cycle of a processor when a cap is reached
D. by lowering the p-state of a processor when a cap is reached
Answer: D

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NO.2 .Click the Exhibit button.The customer sees that the Simulate button for the Room 44L Chiller 1 failure
rule is disabled in the Insight Control Data Center Power Control screen. What should you do to enable
the simulate function for the Room 44L Chiller 1 failure rule?
A. You should copy this rule to a new rule and click on the Simulate button for the new rule.
B. You should edit the rule and mark the Ready for Use button.
C. A rule with the status Not Ready for Use must be at the bottom of the rule list. Therefore, you must use
the down arrow button to move the rule to the bottom of the list.
D. The rule has been simulated before and failed the simulation. Therefore, you must edit the rule,
remove the errors, and then simulate the rule again.
Answer: B

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NO.3 .Which HP Power Regulator setting allows reduced power consumption with little or no impact to
performance?
A. Static Low Power mode
B. Static High Performance mode
C. Dynamic Power Savings mode
D. OS Control mode
Answer: C

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NO.4 .Which elements are required for building a disaster recovery solution using HP Matrix OE, if HP
BladeSystem and HP EVA are already installed? (Select three.)
A. HP Insight Recovery Management
B. HP Application Recovery Manager
C. HP Business Copy EVA
D. HP Replication Solutions Manager EVA
E. HP Continuous Access EVA
Answer: A, D, E

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NO.5 .What does the Central Management Server (CMS) use to initiate and broker the migration process that
is required for Insight Control server migration capability?
A. FCoE
B. HPoncfg
C. PgAP
D. iSCSI
Answer: D

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NO.6 .A feature of HP Insight Control Virtual Machine Management minimizes downtime by performing which
function?
A. relocating virtual machines before hardware failures occur
B. relocating virtual machines after hardware failures occur
C. relocating hosts before hardware failures occur
D. relocating hosts after hardware failures occur
Answer: A

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NO.7 .When using Insight Control Performance Management and viewing a server availability report, what
does %Minor indicate?
A. percentage of time that a server is up and available for monitoring
B. percentage of overall performance that might be approaching a bottleneck condition
C. percentage of overall performance that is in a bottleneck condition
D. percentage of overall performance that is satisfactory with no impending or existing bottleneck
condition
Answer: B

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NO.8 .Which tool can you use to configure a shared data store for VMware hypervisor cluster?
A. VMware vCenter server
B. VMware hypervisor host profile
C. IO storage pool entry
D. Insight Control for VMware vCenter server
Answer: A

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NO.9 .You have completed installing a number of Virtual Connect (VC) based enclosure installations and
want to capture the most recent enclosure and VC information of all the enclosures. What is the quickest
way to do this?
A. Connect to the Onboard Administrator GUI and capture an enclosure inventory, then connect to Virtual
Connect Manager (VCM) via SSH and collect a 'show all' output.
B. Use the Virtual Connect Support Utility (VCSU) with the 'collect' option.
C. Use VCSU with the 'healthcheck' option.
D. Connect to the Onboard Administrator GUI and capture an enclosure inventory, then connect to Virtual
Connect Manager (VCM) via Telnet and collect a 'show all' output.
Answer: B

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NO.10 .Your customer has a Converged Networking solution with an HP Virtual Connect and Physical
Instance enabled network card. The customer asks you to change the vMotion network speed. What
should you do to accomplish this?
A. Change the Required Network Speed within a local VMware Console
B. Change the Required Speed with VMware vSphere client
C. Change the Required Network Speed within Virtual Connect Manager
D. Change the Required Network Speed using Onboard Administrator GUI
Answer: C

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NO.11 .Which virtualization technique does not need to trap and translate all privileged layer instructions
between the guest OS and the actual server hardware?
A. binary translation
B. paravirtualization
C. hosted OS, application-layer abstraction
D. hardware-assisted virtualization
Answer: B

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NO.12 A current multi-enclosure Virtual Connect (VC) domain contains four BladeSystem enclosures cabled
together for a single VC domain. An additional BladeSystem enclosure needs to be added to the
environment.What will provide an optimized and fault tolerant configuration with room for future
expansion?
A. adding the additional BladeSystem enclosure to the current VC domain and configuring in Virtual
Connect Manager
B. creating a secondary VC domain with the new BladeSystem enclosure and configuring in Virtual
Connect SmartStart Manager
C. splitting the current VC domain into two separate VC domains and adding the new BladeSystem
enclosure into one of the newly created VC domains
D. adding the additional BladeSystem enclosure to the current VC domain and upgrading to Virtual
Connect Enterprise Manager to manage more enclosures in the domain
Answer: C

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NO.13 .In a BladeSystem Matrix environment, your logical servers are running low on usable storage capacity.
What can you do on the HP StorageWorks EVA4400 SAN array that was attached to the matrix enclosure?
(Select two.)
A. Add additional disk drives and disk enclosure if needed.
B. Change the disk failure protection level to double on the EVA4400.
C. Group new disk drives into the existing disk group.
D. Increase the storage raw capacity by joining two or more units of EVA4400 with the MPX200 router.
E. Change the vRAID level of the virtual disk from level 5 to level 1.
Answer: A, C

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NO.14 Which tool is appropriate to use to forecast workload memory utilization for future provisioning?
A. HP Software Operations Orchestration
B. HP Matrix OE Capacity Planning
C. HP Insight Installation Advisor
D. HP System Management Home Page
Answer: B

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NO.15 .Which functions does HP SIM provide? (Select three.)
A. continuous device monitoring
B. HP systems software update and tracking
C. server deployment
D. inventory reporting
E. migration of old servers to new ProLiant, maintaining operating system, configuration, and data
Answer: A, B, D

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NO.16 What can enabling "iLO event pass-thru" for event monitoring do?
A. increase workload for the iLO
B. enable iLO event collection by the OS of the server
C. duplicate the events generated for a server
D. enable OA to collect all iLO events in a single log
Answer: C

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NO.17 .What must be configured or changed in order to enable automated rehosting of virtual or physical
servers in the Converged Infrastructure environment.?
A. resource thresholds
B. storage capacity watermark
C. virtual swap memory setting
D. swap file storage location
Answer: A

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NO.18 .An engineer is installing BL460 G7 Server Blades and Virtual Connect FlexFabric modules in a c7000
as part of an HP Converged Infrastructure solution. Which external ports can be used for Fibre Channel
connectivity?
A. the first 2 ports
B. the last 2 ports
C. the first 4 ports
D. the last 4 ports
Answer: C

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NO.19 .Which HP product delivers scale out, excellent performance, and a modular storage infrastructure?
A. HP EVA 6400
B. HP P410i
C. HP P2000 MSA
D. HP X9000
Answer: D

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NO.20 You add new server blades to chassis managed by Matrix OE. What can you use to perform initial
deployment of VMware hypervisor hosts?
A. IO templates
B. IO servers
C. Insight Control deployment jobs
D. VMware vCenter templates
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP0-J49
Exam Name: HP (Designing and Implementing HP Cloud Solutions using HP 3PAR)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 105 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-23

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NO.1 Which feature of the InForm operating system provides adaptable volume reconfiguration?
A. Autonomic Groups
B. Virtual Lock
C. Host Personas
D. Dynamic Optimization
Answer: D

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NO.2 When deploying a F400 with a single magazine in the chassis, what is the minimum upgrade building
block allowed in an F-Class?
A. There must be the same types of drives as in the initial system.
B. A minimum of two ports for backend disk connectivity is required.
C. There must be the same number of drives as the initial system.
D. An upgrade must be performed with a minimum of eight drives.
Answer: A

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NO.3 When creating a CPG (Common Provisioning Group) on an HP 3PAR array, what is the minimum
information you need to provide to the system? (Select two.)
A. device type
B. volume group
C. domain
D. CPG name
E. host name
Answer: A,D

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NO.4 Which 3PAR InForm additional software provides savings on $/IOPS and $/GB?
A. System Tuner
B. Virtual Domains
C. Adaptive Optimization
D. Thin Persistence
Answer: C

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NO.5 You are in a meeting with a customer and they have asked if the 3PAR storage array is a good fit for
them. Which customer needs are best met by the 3PAR architecture?
A. the customer that has random I/O workload and wants to achieve greater VM density
B. the customer whose primary requirement is sequential performance
C. the customer with a large data warehouse application
D. the customer with long term image archiving requirements
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which statement is true about the creation of virtual copies on an HP 3PAR array?
A. A maximum of 1024 virtual copies of each virtual volume is allowed.
B. It is only possible to create a read-only copy of a read-only volume.
C. A read-only copy can have multiple read/write virtual copies.
D. A read-only copy is automatically created when utilizing the InForm GUI.
Answer: D

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NO.7 A system engineer implemented Remote Copy between two F-400 systems. For which entity can a
failover be initiated?
A. domain group
B. controller node
C. entire system
D. domain
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which statement is true about Virtual Lock on an HP 3PAR array?
A. Virtual Lock functionality is included in the base product.
B. Virtual Lock sets a read-only flag to a volume to prevent overwriting the volume. However, it can be
deleted.
C. Virtual Lock prevents a volume from being deleted intentionally or unintentionally before the retention
period elapses.
D. Virtual Lock can be used to specify the retention period for each volume, but not a copy of a volume.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which storage-as-a-utility benefit does the HP 3PAR solution offer?
A. consistent performance across mixed workloads
B. Ingress data deduplication
C. configurations for archiving and D2D backup
D. lowest cost per gigabyte
Answer: B

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NO.10 What is a key advantage of an HP 3PAR solution?
A. The solution is designed primarily as a cloud offering.
B. It uses finely granular distribution across an entire disk group.
C. Data is distributed across entire RAID sets.
D. Storage can be provisioned in as few as two commands.
Answer: D

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NO.11 When adding disk drives to a T-class drive chassis, how many drives must be added at the same time?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
Answer: B

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NO.12 A system engineer installs the System Reporter in a customer environment. Which databases can be
used with System Reporter? (Select two.)
A. MySQL
B. MS SQL
C. Informix
D. Oracle
E. Progress
Answer: A,D

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NO.13 What are the minimum HP Care Pack Services for customers purchasing an HP 3PAR T-Series Array?
(Select two.)
A. HP Data Migration Service
B. 3-Year HP Support Plus w/DMR
C. 3-Year HP Support Plus 24
D. HP 3PAR Storage System Installation and Startup Service
E. 3-Year HP Critical Service
Answer: C,D

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NO.14 Which user privileges are needed to create tasks to be initiated by the System Scheduler using the CLI.?
(Select two.)
A. Super
B. Browse
C. Edit
D. Service
E. Admin
Answer: A,D

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NO.15 Which statement is correct when implementing Many-to-One Remote Copy?
A. Only asynchronous periodic mode is supported.
B. A minimum of two controllers are required per InServ per site.
C. Up to two target sites are supported.
D. The maximum support is six InServs to one.
Answer: B

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