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2013年12月9日星期一

EX0-101 practice tests

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Exam Code: EX0-101
Exam Name: EXIN (ITIL Foundation V 3.0 & ITIL Foundation)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-08

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NO.1 Which one of the following can help determine the level of impact of a problem?
A. Definitive media library (DML)
B. Configuration management system (CMS)
C. Statement of requirements (SOR)
D. Standard operating procedures (SOP)
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which one of the following is the BEST description of a relationship in service asset and configuration
management?
A. Describes the topography of the hardware
B. Describes how the configuration items (CIs) work together to deliver the services
C. Defines which software should be installed on a particular piece of hardware
D. Defines how version numbers should be used in a release
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which one of the following is the purpose of service level management?
A. To carry out the service operations activities needed to support current IT services
B. To ensure that sufficient capacity is provided to deliver the agreed performance of services
C. To create and populate a service catalogue
D. To ensure that an agreed level of IT service is provided for all current IT services
Answer: D

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NO.4 Consider the following list:
1. Change authority
2. Change manager
3. Change advisory board (CAB)
Which one of the following is the BEST description of the items above?
A. Job descriptions
B. Functions
C. Teams
D. Roles, people or groups
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which one of the following contains information that is passed to service transition to enable the
implementation of a new service?
A. A service option
B. A service transition package (STP)
C. A service design package (SDP)
D. A service charter
Answer: C

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NO.6 At which stage of the service lifecycle should the processes necessary to operate a new service be
defined?
A. Service design: Design the processes
B. Service strategy: Develop the offerings
C. Service transition: Plan and prepare for deployment
D. Service operation: IT operations management
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which one of the following do major incidents require?
A. Separate procedures
B. Less urgency
C. Longer timescales
D. Less documentation
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which one of the following is the BEST description of a service request?
A. A request from a user for information, advice or for a standard change
B. Anything that the customer wants and is prepared to pay for
C. Any request or demand that is entered by a user via a self-help web-based interface
D. Any request for change (RFC) that is low-risk and which can be approved by the change manager
without a change advisory board (CAB) meeting
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which process is involved in monitoring an IT service and detecting when the performance drops below
acceptable limits?
A. Service asset and configuration management
B. Event management
C. Service catalogue management
D. Problem management
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which process includes business, service and component sub-processes?
A. Capacity management
B. Incident management
C. Service level management
D. Financial management
Answer: A

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2013年11月14日星期四

EXIN Certification EX0-105 exam pdf

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Exam Code: EX0-105
Exam Name: EXIN (Information Security Foundation based on ISO/IEC 27002 )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-13

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NO.1 You are the owner of the courier company SpeeDelivery. You employ a few people who, while waiting to
make a delivery, can carry out other tasks. You notice, however, that they use this time to send and read
their private mail and surf the Internet. In legal terms, in which way can the use of the Internet and e-mail
facilities be best regulated?
A.Installing an application that makes certain websites no longer accessible and that filters attachments in
e-mails
B.Drafting a code of conduct for the use of the Internet and e-mail in which the rights and obligations of
both the employer and staff are set down
C.Implementing privacy regulations
D.Installing a virus scanner
Answer:B

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NO.2 You work for a large organization. You notice that you have access to confidential information that you
should not be able to access in your position. You report this security incident to the helpdesk. The
incident cycle isinitiated. What are the stages of the security incident cycle?
A.Threat, Damage, Incident, Recovery
B.Threat, Damage, Recovery, Incident
C.Threat, Incident, Damage, Recovery
D.Threat, Recovery, Incident, Damage
Answer:C

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NO.3 Your organization has an office with space for 25 workstations. These workstations are all fully
equipped and in use. Due to a reorganization 10 extra workstations are added, 5 of which are used for a
call centre 24 hours per day. Five workstations must always be available. What physical security
measures must be taken in order to ensure this?
A.Obtain an extra office and set up 10 workstations. You would therefore have spare equipment that can
be used to replace any non-functioning equipment.
B.Obtain an extra office and set up 10 workstations. Ensure that there are security personnel both in the
evenings and at night, so that staff can work there safely and securely.
C.Obtain an extra office and connect all 10 new workstations to an emergency power supply and UPS
(Uninterruptible Power Supply). Adjust the access control system to the working hours of the new staff.
Inform the building security personnel that work will also be carried out in the evenings and at night.
D.Obtain an extra office and provide a UPS (Uninterruptible Power Supply) for the five most important
workstations.
Answer:C

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NO.4 The company Midwest Insurance has taken many measures to protect its information. It uses an
Information Security Management System, the input and output of data in applications is validated,
confidential documents are sent in encrypted form and staff use tokens to access information systems.
Which of these is not a technical measure?
A.Information Security Management System
B.The use of tokens to gain access to information systems
C.Validation of input and output data in applications
D.Encryption of information
Answer:A

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NO.5 You work in the IT department of a medium-sized company. Confidential information has got into the
wrong hands several times. This has hurt the image of the company. You have been asked to propose
organizational security measures for laptops at your company. What is the first step that you should take?
A.Formulate a policy regarding mobile media (PDAs, laptops, smartphones, USB sticks)
B.Appoint security personnel
C.Encrypt the hard drives of laptops and USB sticks
D.Set up an access control policy
Answer:A

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NO.6 What is an example of a physical security measure?
A.A code of conduct that requires staff to adhere to the clear desk policy, ensuring that confidential
information is not left visibly on the desk at the end of the work day
B.An access control policy with passes that have to be worn visibly
C.The encryption of confidential information
D.Special fire extinguishers with inert gas, such as Argon
Answer:D

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NO.7 What physical security measure is necessary to control access to company information?
A.Air-conditioning
B.Username and password
C.The use of break-resistant glass and doors with the right locks, frames and hinges
D.Prohibiting the use of USB sticks
Answer:C

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NO.8 Who is authorized to change the classification of a document?
A.The author of the document
B.The administrator of the document
C.The owner of the document
D.The manager of the owner of the document
Answer:C

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NO.9 Why do organizations have an information security policy?
A.In order to demonstrate the operation of the Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle within an organization.
B.In order to ensure that staff do not break any laws.
C.In order to give direction to how information security is set up within an organization.
D.In order to ensure that everyone knows who is responsible for carrying out the backup procedures.
Answer:C

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NO.10 Why is air-conditioning placed in the server room?
A.In the server room the air has to be cooled and the heat produced by the equipment has to be extracted.
The air in the room is also dehumidified and filtered.
B.When a company wishes to cool its offices, the server room is the best place. This way, no office space
needs to be sacrificed for such a large piece of equipment.
C.It is not pleasant for the maintenance staff to have to work in a server room that is too warm.
D.Backup tapes are made from thin plastic which cannot withstand high temperatures. Therefore, if it gets
too hot in a server room, they may get damaged.
Answer:A

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DumpLeader EXIN ITIL exam practice questions and answers

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Exam Code: ITIL
Exam Name: EXIN (ITIL V3 Foundation)
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Total Q&A: 369 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-13

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NO.1 The BEST description of the purpose of Service Operation is?
A. To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the Service Management Lifecycle
B. To proactively prevent all outages to IT Services
C. To deliver and support IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers
D. To design and build processes that will meet business needs
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following are the MAIN objectives of incident management?
To automatically detect service affecting events
To restore normal service operation as quickly as possible
To minimize adverse impacts on business operations
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All of the above
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which is the correct combination of Service Management terms across the Lifecycle?
A. 1A, 2B, 3C, 4D
B. 1C, 2D, 3A, 4B
C. 1C, 2B, 3A, 4D
D. 1B, 2C, 3D, 4A
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
A. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) includes Configuration Management Databases
(CMDB)
B. The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System (CMS)
C. The SKMS can include data on the performance of the organization
D. The SKMS can include user skill levels
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following questions does Service Strategy help answer with its guidance?
How do we prioritize investments across a portfolio?
What services to offer and to whom?
What are the Patterns of Business Activity (PBA)?
A. 3 only
B. 1 only
C. 2 only
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of these statements about Service Desk staff is CORRECT?
A. Service Desk staff should be recruited from people who have high levels of technical skill tominimize
the cost of training them
B. The Service Desk can often be used as a stepping stone for staff to move into other more technical or
supervisory roles
C. The Service Desk should try to have a high level of staff turnover as the training requirements are low
and this helps to minimize salaries
D. Service Desk staff should be discouraged from applying for other roles as it is more cost effective to
keep them in the role where they have been trained
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following is NOT an example of Self-Help capabilities?
A. Requirement to always call the service desk for service requests
B. Menu-driven range of self help and service requests
C. Web front-end
D. A direct interface into the back end process handling software
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
A. The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System (CMS)
B. The SKMS can include data on the performance of the organization
C. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) includes Configuration Management Databases
(CMDB)
D. The SKMS can include user skill levels
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of these statements about Service Desk staff is CORRECT?
A. Service Desk staff should be recruited from people who have high levels of technical skill tominimize
the cost of training them
B. Service Desk staff should be discouraged from applying for other roles as it is more cost effective to
keep them in the role where they have been trained
C. The Service Desk can often be used as a stepping stone for staff to move into other more technical or
supervisory roles
D. The Service Desk should try to have a high level of staff turnover as the training requirements are low
and this helps to minimize salaries
Answer: C

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NO.10 In which core publication can you find detailed descriptions of Service Level Management, Availability
Management, Supplier Management and IT Service Continuity Management?
A. Service Transition
B. Service Design
C. Service Strategy
D. Service Operation
Answer: B

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NO.11 Effective release and deployment management enables the service provider to add value to the
business by?
A. Ensuring that all assets are accounted for
B. Ensures that the fastest servers are purchased
C. Delivering change, faster and at optimum cost and minimized risk
D. Verifying the accuracy of all items in the configuration management database
Answer: C

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NO.12 Service Assets are used to create value. Which of the following are the MAJOR types of Service Asset?
A. Services and Infrastructure
B. Applications and Infrastructure
C. Resources and Capabilities
D. Utility and Warranty
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which of the following is NOT one of the five individual aspects of Service Design?
A. The design of the Service Portfolio, including the Service Catalogue
B. The design of Market Spaces
C. The design of new or changed services
D. The design of the technology architecture and management systems
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which of the following is the correct set of steps for the continual service improvement
model/approach.?
A. Devise a strategy; Design the solution; Transition into production; Operate the solution; Continually
improve
B. Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; How do we check we have arrived?; How do we
keep the momentum going?
C. Identify the required business outcomes; Plan how to achieve the outcomes; Implement the plan;
Check the plan has been properly implemented; Improve the solution
D. What is the vision?; Where are we now?; Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; Did we get
there?; How do we keep the momentum going?
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which of the following sentences BEST describes a Standard Change?
A. A change to the service provider's established policies and guidelines
B. A pre-authorized change that has an accepted and established procedure
C. A change that is made as the result of an audit
D. A change that correctly follows the required change process
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which of the following are managed by facilities management? Hardware within a data centre or
computer room Applications Power and cooling equipment Recovery sites
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. All of the above
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 1 and 3 only
Answer: C

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NO.17 How many times should each stage of the Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) cycle be visited?
A. Each stage should be carried out once in the order Plan-Do-Check-Act
B. There should be a single Plan,then the Do-Check-Act cycle should be repeated multiple times to
implement Continual Improvement
C. There should be a single Plan and Do,then Check and Act should be carried out multiple times to
implement Continual Improvement
D. The entire cycle should be repeated multiple times to implement Continual Improvement
Answer: D

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NO.18 A plan for managing the end of a supplier contract should be created when?
A. The contract is being negotiated
B. The contract is about to be ended
C. The Supplier Manager decides that there is a risk the contract might need to end soon
D. The contract has been agreed
Answer: A

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NO.19 The group that authorizes changes that must be installed faster than the normal process is called the?
A. Emergency CAB (ECAB)
B. Urgent Change Authority (UCA)
C. Urgent Change Board (UCB)
D. CAB Emergency Committee (CAB/EC)
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which of the following models would be MOST useful in helping to define an organizational structure?
A. RACI model
B. Service Model
C. Continual Service improvement (CSI) model.
D. The Deming Cycle
Answer: A

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EXIN EX0-115 exam study materials

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Exam Code: EX0-115
Exam Name: EXIN (IT Service Management Foundation based on ISO/IEC 20000)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 78 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-13

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NO.1 What has to be included in a well defined process?
A. Expected outcomes
B. Functions
C. Statistical support
D. Timelines
Answer: A

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NO.2 One of the activities of Problem Management is the analysis of historical Incident and Problem data held
in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB) in order to understand trends.
Which aspect of Problem Management accomplishes this?
A. Error Control
B. Identification of root causes
C. Proactive Problem Management
D. Problem Control
Answer: C

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NO.3 In recent months at a transport company with 1500 desktops, dozens of requests have been received
for expansion of the internal memory because its size has proven to be insufficient.
Which process should have prevented this from happening?
A. Capacity Management
B. Service Level Management
C. Configuration Management
D. Availability Management
Answer: A

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NO.4 Quality Management Systems can assist organizations in enhancing what?
A. Customer satisfaction
B. ISO/EC 20000
C. Relationship with third parties
D. Supplier satisfaction
Answer: A

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NO.5 Different types of events are reported to the Service Desk. Which event is an incident?
A. Information about the rollout of a specific application
B. A notification that a new toner cartridge has just been installed in a printer
C. A report that the printer is not working
D. A request for the installation of a new bookkeeping package
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which process includes the responsibility of recovering the service as quickly as possible?
A. Availability Management
B. IT Service Continuity Management
C. Incident management
D. Problem Management
Answer: C

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NO.7 Deming proposed a system of continuous improvement.
Which four activities does this system involve?
A. Plan. Do. Check and Act
B. Plan. Do. Evaluate and Act
C. Plan. Perform. Audit and Improve
D. Plan. Perform. Evaluate and Act
Answer: A

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NO.8 What is known as a temporary solution that enables the user to continue working?
A. Known Error
B. Request For Change (RFC)
C. Service Request
D. Workaround
Answer: D

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NO.9 What would increase the amount of detail in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)?
A. Increasing the scope of the CMDB
B. Increasing the number of attributes of each Configuration Item (CI) in the CMDB
C. Increasing the number of records in the CMDB
D. Increasing the use of the CMDB
Answer: B

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NO.10 What is a Configuration Baseline?
A. A benchmark of the service provider's capability
B. A configuration audit report
C. A snapshot of the state of an IT Service or individual Configuration Item (CI) at a point in time
D. The change requests allocated to a release
Answer: C

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NO.11 Through which process does the implementation of new or changed services, including closure of a
service, need to be planned and approved.?
A. Business Relationship Management
B. Change Management
C. Release Management
D. Service Level Management
Answer: B

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NO.1 If you capture an 802.11 frame, and the ToDS bit is set to zero and the FromDS bit is set to
zero,
what type of WLAN is this frame a part of?
A. Mesh
B. Broadcast
C. Infrastructure
D. Hierarchical
E. Ad Hoc
Answer: E

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NO.2 In order to perform promiscuous mode captures using the Wireshark capture tool on a
Windows
Server 2003 machine, what must first be installed?
A. IPv4 stack
B. IPv6 stack
C. WinPcap
D. Nothing, it will capture by default
E. At least two network adapters
Answer: C

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NO.3 You are configuring the rules on your firewall, and need to take into consideration that some
clients in the network are using automatic addressing. What is the IP address range reserved for
internal use for APIPA in Microsoft networks?
A. 169.254.0.0 / 4
B. 169.254.0.0 /16
C. 169.254.0.0 / 8
D. 169.254.0.0 / 0
E. 168.255.0.0 /16
Answer: B

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NO.4 You have implemented an IPSec policy, using only AH. You are analyzing your network traffic
in Network Monitor, which of the following statements are true about your network traffic?
A. You will not be able to view the data in the packets, as it is encrypted.
B. You will not be able to identify the upper layer protocol.
C. You will be able to view the unencrypted data in the packets.
D. You will be able to identify the encryption algorithm in use.
E. You will not be able to view the packet header.
Answer: C

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NO.5 There are several options available to you for your new wireless networking technologies, and
you are examining how different systems function. What transmission system uses short bursts
combined together as a channel?
A. Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum (FHSS)
B. Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS)
C. Lamar Anthell Transmission (LAT)
D. Digital Band Hopping (DBH)
E. Digital Channel Hopping (DCH)
Answer: A

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2013年11月1日星期五

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NO.1 To maintain the security of your network you routinely run several checks of the network
andcomputers.
Often you use the built-in tools, such as netstat. If you run the following command: netstat -e whichof the
following will be the result?
A. Displays all connections and listening ports
B. Displays Ethernet statistics
C. Displays addresses and port numbers in numerical form
D. Shows connections for the protocol specified
E. Displays per-protocol statistics
Answer: B

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NO.2 As per the guidelines in the ISO Security Policy standard, what is the purpose of the section on
Business Continuity Planning?
A. The objectives of this section are to maintain appropriate protection of corporate assets and to ensure
that information assets receive an appropriate level of protection.
B. The objectives of this section are to provide management direction and support for information security.
C. The objectives of this section are to counteract interruptions to business activities and to critical
business processes from the effects of major failures or disasters.
D. The objectives of this section are to avoid breaches of any criminal or civil law, statutory, regulatory or
contractual obligations and of any security requirements, and to ensure compliance of systems with
organizational security policies and standards.
E. The objectives of this section are to control access to information, to prevent unauthorized access to
information systems, to ensure the protection of networked services, and to prevent unauthorized
computer access.
Answer: C

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NO.3 You have become the lead security professional for a mid-sized organization. You are currently
studying DNS issues, and configuration options. You come across the concepts of DNS Spoofing, and
investigate more. What is DNS Spoofing?
A. DNS Spoofing is when the DNS client submits a false DNS request to the DNS server, and the DNS
server responds with correct data.
B. DNS Spoofing is the DNS client submits a DNS request to the DNS server using a bogus IP address,
and the DNS server responds to the incorrect host.
C. DNS Spoofing is when a DNS Server responds to an unauthorized DNS client, providing that client with
name resolution.
D. DNS Spoofing is when a DNS client is forced to make a DNS query to an imposter DNS server, which
send the client to an imposter resource.
E. DNS spoofing is when a DNS server provides name resolution to clients that are located in a different
IP subnet than the server itself.
Answer: D

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NO.4 During the configuration of your Linux system, you are working with the available drives in
thecomputer.
What syntax defines the First (Primary) IDE hard disk drive?
A. /dev/sda
B. /dev/fda
C. /dev/hd1
D. /dev/hda
E. /dev/fd1
Answer: D

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NO.5 You are configuring the permissions to a file, called file1, on your Linux file server. You wish to change
the permissions to remove the execute permission from the others and group. Which of the following
commands will complete this task?
A. umask x-og file1
B. umask og-x file1
C. chmod xog- file1
D. chmod x-og file1
E. chmod og-x file1
Answer: E

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NO.6 What is the name of the informational page that is relevant to a particular command in Linux?
A. Readme Page
B. Lnx_nfo Page
C. Man Page
D. X_Win Page
E. Cmd_Doc Page
Answer: C

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NO.7 Recently, you have seen an increase in intrusion attempts and in network traffic. You decide to use
Snort to run a packet capture and analyze the traffic that is present. Looking at the example, what type of
traffic did Snort capture in this log file?
A. NetBus Scan
B. Trojan Scan
C. Ping Sweep
D. Port Scan
E. Ping Sweep
Answer: D

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NO.8 You are discussing the design and infrastructure of the Internet with several colleagues when a
disagreement begins over the actual function of the NAP in the Internets design. What is the function of a
NAP in the physical structure of the Internet?
A. The NAP provides for a layered connection system of ISPs connecting to the backbone.
B. The NAP provides the actual connection point between a local user and the Internet.
C. The NAP provides the physical network with communication channels for the Internet and voice/data
applications.
D. The NAP provides a national interconnection of systems, called peering centers, to the NSPs.
E. The NAP provides for a connection point between an ISP and the backbone of the Internet.
Answer: E

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NO.9 As per the guidelines in the ISO Security Policy standard, what is the purpose of the section on Physical
and Environmental Security.?
A. The objectives of this section are to avoid breaches of any criminal or civil law, statutory, regulatory or
contractual obligations and of any security requirements, and to ensure compliance of systems with
organizational security policies and standards.
B. The objectives of this section are to prevent unauthorized access, damage and interference to
business premises and information; to prevent loss, damage or compromise of assets and interruption to
business activities; to prevent compromise or theft of information and information processing facilities.
C. The objectives of this section are to provide management direction and support for information
security.
D. The objectives of this section are to maintain appropriate protection of corporate assets and to ensure
that information assets receive an appropriate level of protection.
E. The objectives of this section are to control access to information, to prevent unauthorized access to
information systems, to ensure the protection of networked services, and to prevent unauthorized
computer access.
Answer: B

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NO.10 You have just become the senior security professional in your office. After you have taken a complete
inventory of the network and resources, you begin to work on planning for a successful security
implementation in the network. You are aware of the many tools provided for securing
Windows 2003 machines in your network. What is the function of Secedit.exe?
A. This tool is used to set the NTFS security permissions on objects in the domain.
B. This tool is used to create an initial security database for the domain.
C. This tool is used to analyze a large number of computers in a domain-based infrastructure.
D. This tool provides an analysis of the local system NTFS security.
E. This tool provides a single point of management where security options can be applied to a local
computer or can be imported to a GPO.
Answer: C

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NO.11 You are configuring the lines that control access to exported objects on your server running NFS. If you
have a directory called /Tech and you wish to export this directory to network 192.168.20.0/24, allowing
root access, and the permissions of read and write, which of the following lines will accomplish this?
A. (RW) no_root_squash /Tech 192.168.20.0/24
B. /Tech 192.168.20.0/24 (rw) no_root_squash
C. (RW) no_root_squash 192.168.20.0/24 /Tech
D. (RW)no_root_squash:/Tech 192.168.20.0/24
E. /Tech 192.168.20.0/24(rw) no_root_squash
Answer: E

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NO.12 In the past it was, at times, difficult to locate current information on security vulnerabilities. What is the
name of the security communitys effort to create a comprehensive database of multiple vulnerabilities and
security tools?
A. Common Vulnerabilities and Exploits
B. Cataloged Venerations and Exposures
C. Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures
D. Cataloged Vulnerabilities and Exposures
E. Cataloged Vulnerabilities and Exploits
Answer: C

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NO.13 Recently, you have seen an increase in intrusion attempts and in network traffic. You decide to use
Snort to run a packet capture and analyze the traffic that is present. Looking at the example, what type of
traffic did Snort capture in this log file?
A. Windows 2000 Ping Request
B. Windows NT 4.0 Ping Request
C. Linux Ping Request
D. Linux Ping Response
E. Windows NT 4.0 Ping Response
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which of the following are symmetric encryption algorithms?
A. MD5
B. RSA
C. Diffie-Hellman
D. 3DES
E. AES
Answer: D,E

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NO.15 What is a problem with symmetric key cryptography?
A. It is slower than asymmetric key cryptography
B. Secure distribution of the public key
C. There is a lack of encryption protocols that can use symmetric key cryptography
D. Secure distribution of a secret key
E. Symmetric key cryptography is reserved for the NSA
Answer: D

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NO.16 To increase the security of your network and systems, it has been decided that EFS will be implemented
in the appropriate situations. Two users are working on a common file, and often email this file back and
forth between each other. Is this a situation where the use of EFS will create effective security, and why
(or why not)?
A. No, the security will remain the same since both users will share the same key for encryption.
B. Yes, since the file will be using two keys for encryption the security will increase.
C. No, the security will remain the same since both users will share the same key for decryption.
D. Yes, since the file will be using two keys for decryption the security will increase.
E. No, EFS cannot be used for files that are shared between users.
Answer: E

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NO.17 During the review of the security logs you notice some unusual traffic. It seems that a user has
connected to your Web site ten times in the last week, and each time has visited every single page on the
site. You are concerned this may be leading up to some sort of attack. What is this user most likely getting
ready to do?
A. Mirror the entire web site.
B. Download entire DNS entries.
C. Scan all ports on a web server.
D. Perform a Distributed Denial of Service attack through the Web server.
E. Allow users to log on to the Internet without an ISP.
Answer: A

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NO.18 You have just downloaded a new file, called scnpfile.tar.gz. You are going to verify the file prior to
un-archiving the file. Which command do you need to type to un-compress the file, prior to unarchiving?
A. tar xvf scnpfile.tar.gz
B. tar -zxvf scnpfile.tar.gz
C. gunzip scnpfile.tar.gz
D. gunzip -xvf scnpfile.tar.gz
E. gunzip -zxvf scnpfile.tar.gz
Answer: C

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NO.19 You are working on the authentication systems in your network, and are concerned with your legacy
systems. In Windows NT 4.0, before Service Pack 4 (SP4), there were only two supported methods of
authentication. What were those two methods?
A. NetBIOS
B. LM
C. NTLM
D. NTLMv2
E. Kerberos
Answer: B,C

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NO.20 You are aware of the significance and security risk that Social Engineering plays on your
company. Of the following Scenarios, select those that, just as described, represent potentially dangerous
Social
Engineering:
A. A writer from a local college newspapers calls and speaks to a network administrator. On the call the
writer requests an interview about the current trends in technology and offers to invite the administrator to
speak at a seminar.
B. An anonymous caller calls and wishes to speak with the receptionist. On the call the caller asks the
receptionist the normal business hours that the organization is open to the public.
C. An anonymous caller calls and wishes to speak with the purchaser of IT hardware and
software. On the call the caller lists several new products that the purchaser may be interested in
evaluating. The caller asks for a time to come and visit to demonstrate the new products.
D. An email, sent by the Vice President of Sales and Marketing, is received by the Help Desk asking to
reset the password of the VP of Sales and Marketing.
E. An email is received by the Chief Security Officer (CSO) about a possible upgrade coming from the ISP
to a different brand of router. The CSO is asked for the current network's configuration data and the
emailer discusses the method, plan, and expected dates for the rollover to the new equipment.
Answer: D,E

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NO.21 If you encrypt or decrypt files and folders located on a remote computer that has been enabled for
remote encryption; the data that is transmitted over the network by this process is not encrypted. In order
to keep data encrypted as it is transmitted over the network, which of the following must you do?
A. You must implement EFS.
B. You must implement B2 security for Windows.
C. You must use IPSec.
D. You must use a recovery agent.
E. You must transmit the entire folder, not individual files.
Answer: C

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NO.22 In order for your newly written security policy to have any weight, it must be implemented. Which of the
following are the three components of a successful Security Policy Implementation in an organization?
A. Policy Monitoring
B. Policy Design
C. Policy Committee
D. Policy Enforcement
E. Policy Documentation
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.23 Often times attackers will run scans against the network to identify different network and operating
systems, and resources that are available. If an attacker runs scans on the network, and you are logging
the connections, which of the following represent the legitimate combination of packets that will be sent
between the attacker and target?
A. Attacker PSH-FIN Scan, Target RST-FIN Response
B. Attacker ACK Scan, Target NULL Response
C. Attacker NULL Scan, Target RST Response
D. Attacker SYN Scan, Target NULL Response
E. Attacker FIN Scan, Target RST Response
Answer: C,E

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NO.24 What type of cipher is used by an algorithm that encrypts data one bit at a time?
A. 64-bit encryption Cipher
B. Block Cipher
C. Stream Cipher
D. Diffuse Cipher
E. Split Cipher
Answer: C

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NO.25 During a one week investigation into the security of your network you work on identifying the information
that is leaked to the Internet, either directly or indirectly. One thing you decide to evaluate is the
information stored in the Whois lookup of your organizational website. Of the following, what pieces of
information can be identified via this method?
A. Registrar
B. Mailing Address
C. Contact Name
D. Record Update
E. Network Addresses (Private)
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.26 Recently, you have seen an increase in intrusion attempts and in network traffic. You decide to use
Snort to run a packet capture and analyze the traffic that is present. Looking at the example, what type of
traffic did Snort capture in this log file?
A. Windows 2000 Ping Request
B. Windows NT 4.0 Ping Request
C. Linux Ping Request
D. Linux Ping Response
E. Windows NT 4.0 Ping Response
Answer: B

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NO.27 On Monday, during a routine check of a users Windows workstation, you find the following program,
called regedit.bat on the users local hard drive:
Net localgroup administrators local /all Start regedit.exe Exit
What is this program capable of doing on this computer?
A. Nothing, the first line is coded wrong.
B. It will add the administrators to the local group
C. It will add the local user to all local groups
D. It will add the administrators to all local groups
E. It will add the local user to the administrators group
Answer: E

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NO.28 When using the 3DES encryption ( C = EK1[DK2[EK1[P]]] ) , what is the function of C?
A. C is the text before encryption
B. C is the first encryption key
C. C is the second encryption key
D. C is the decryption key
E. C is the text after encryption
Answer: E

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NO.29 Attackers have the ability to use programs that are able to reveal local passwords by placing some kind
of a pointer/cursor over the asterisks in a program's password field. The reason that such tools can
uncover passwords in some Operating Systems is because:
A. the passwords are simply masked with asterisks
B. the etc/passwd file is on a FAT32 partition
C. the passwords are decrypted on screen
D. the password text is stored in ASCII format
E. the etc/passwd file is on a FAT16 partition
Answer: A

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NO.30 In the process of public key cryptography, which of the following is true?
A. Only the public key is used to encrypt and decrypt
B. Only the private key can encrypt and only the public key can decrypt
C. Only the public key can encrypt and only the private key can decrypt
D. The private key is used to encrypt and decrypt
E. If the public key encrypts, then only the private key can decrypt
Answer: E

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Exam Code: EX0-112
Exam Name: EXIN (Business Information Management Foundation)
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Total Q&A: 79 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 The process cluster Use management signals disruptions to the information provisioning, which are
experienced in the business process. Which process cluster will be the first to act on these signals?
A. Functionality management cluster
B. Information strategy cluster
C. Connecting processes (operational)
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is a result of the process Specify information requirement?
A. a functional design
B. a list of functional and non-functional demands
C. an approved test strategy
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which process produces an end user training for a new release of an application?
A. Transition
B. Prepare transition
C. Design non-automated information systems
Answer: B

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NO.4 The cluster Use management provides information about the reliability of the business data. For which
process is this input?
A. Business data management
B. Demand management
C. Contract management
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which responsibility belongs to the process Demand management?
A. determining the necessary capacity for change
B. periodic consultation of the end users
C. identification of information requirements within the business process
Answer: C

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NO.6 What do frameworks like BiSL contribute to the implementation of effective business
information management?
A. structured activities of business information management
B. much improved quality of the IT-services
C. a uniformly implemented business information management for each organization
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which activity belongs to the process End user support?
A. dealing with calls about errors in the functionality
B. monitoring the usage of the information systems
C. adding new end users to a table
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which process determines which information provisioning is required, including the
priorities?
A. Demand management
B. End user support
C. Information lifecycle management
Answer: A

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NO.9 What is a key message of BiSL?
A. After outsourcing of IT-activities, professional business information management
becomes less important.
B. The importance of having good business information management increases in proportion to the
importance of the information provisioning for the organization.
C. Integration and alignment of the operational IT-management processes with the policy is a
consequence of an effective and efficient information provisioning.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which monitoring activity belongs to Business data management?
A. monitoring of the integrity of customer data
B. monitoring whether the acceptance test data are correct
C. monitoring the accuracy of reports provided by the IT service provider
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which activities are not in a transition plan?
A. the activities that are required for a successful preparation of the implementation
B. the generic activities that have to be performed at all locations where the system is
implemented
C. the specific activities that have to be performed at a specific location during transition
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which process deals with defining interfaces in the area of information provisioning between various
organizations?
A. Information coordination
B. Information lifecycle management
C. Information portfolio management
D. Strategic information partner management
Answer: D

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NO.13 Two reports that have been produced in the nightly batch processing have been damaged during
printing. This has been noticed by Operational supplier management. In which process will the end users
be informed that the reports have been damaged?
A. Business data management
B. End user support
C. Operational supplier management
Answer: B

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NO.14 What is not an activity of Contract management.?
A. agreeing on how the information manager is to communicate with the IT director
B. changing the time of delivery of a change
C. monitoring whether the supplied IT-services correspond to the agreed services
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which role does business information management play regarding the realization of the
information provisioning?
A. the role of vendor of IT-services
B. the role of purchaser of IT-services
C. the role of supplier of IT-services
Answer: B

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Exam Code: TMPTE
Exam Name: EXIN (TMap NEXT® Test Engineer)
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Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 See the definition below:
Tests in which the supplying party demonstrates that the product particularly meets the functional and
non-functional specifications and the technical design, among other things.
Of which test level is this the definition?
A. acceptance test
B. development test
C. system test
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which type of tool is used in the Execution phase to test a module or component that has a
relationship with programs that have not yet been realized?
A. code coverage tool
B. comparator
C. 'model-based testing' tool
D. stubs and drivers
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which defect has an internal cause that can be solved within the test team?
A. a defect in the test basis
B. a defect in the test specification
C. a defect in the test object
Answer: B

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NO.4 See the illustration below:
To test a registration application for a weekend trip, logical test cases must be created in
accordance with the Data Combination Test. In addition, it has been agreed that less depth testing
must be performed. One data pair has been defined that must be fully tested in combination:
-car - attraction
Eight test cases are designed using a classification tree.
Where must the 'bullets' for test case 4 be placed?
A. Saturday, fun park, 2nd
B. Sunday, museum, station
C. Sunday, fun park, station
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which activity is not part of the Completion phase?
A. updating the testware to be preserved
B. assessing test results
C. evaluating the test process
D. selecting the testware to be preserved
Answer: B

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NO.6 During the Process Cycle Test, the coverage type paths is used. In which way can coverage be varied
here?
A. by using boundary values
B. by using a higher or lower test depth level
C. by taking equivalence classes into consideration
Answer: B

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NO.7 A structured testing approach is characterized by:
-providing concrete footholds -covering the full scope and describing the complete range of relevant
aspects -providing a structure, so that it is clear what exactly by whom, when and in what sequence has to
be done
What is the fourth characteristic?
A. it delivers insight into and advice on any risks in respect of the quality of the tested system
B. managing test activities in the context of time, money and quality
C. the testing is on the critical path of the total development, as briefly as possible, so that the total lead
time of development is shortened
D. to find defects at an early stage
Answer: B

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NO.8 What is not an advantage of applying a test design technique and recording it in the test specifications?
A. that the tests are reproducible
B. that the test specifications are transferable
C. that coverage of 100% is achieved
D. that it provides a justified elaboration of the test strategy
Answer: C

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NO.9 In which Map phase activity does the pre-test take place.?
A. Defining central starting points
B. Intake of the test object
C. Specifying the test object intake
D. Executing (re)tests
Answer: B

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NO.10 Under which circumstance can Exploratory Testing be used effectively?
A. when experienced testers with domain knowledge are available
B. when testing must be as brief as possible on the critical path of the project
C. when critical functionality, failure of which can cause severe damage, must be tested
Answer: A

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