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Exam Code: 6101-1
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Ethernet Routing Switch Implementation Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 An engineer needs to assign an IP address of 172.25.36 for out of band management
of an Ethernet
Routing Switch (ERS) 8600 switch with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192
Which Command Line Interface (CLI) command should the engineer use?
A. ERS86000:5# config bootconfig set ip 172.25.10.36/26
B. ERS86000:5# config bootconfig set ip 172.25.10.36/27
C. ERS86000:5# config bootconfig net mgemt ip 172.25.10.36/27
D. ERS86000:5# config bootconfig net mgemt ip 172.25.10.36/26
Answer: D

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NO.2 A technician is configuring 802.1 Q tagging. VLACP with short timeout, untagged
frames to be
discarded. Which part of the network is being configured?
A. layer 2 core
B. layer 3 core
C. the edge
D. the uplinks
Answer: D

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NO.3 A technician is implementing a new network that contains eight Ethernet Routing
Switch (ERS) 8600
switches and uses advanced features. What are two possibilities for generating licenses?
(Choose two)
A. one individual advanced feature license for each ERS8600 chassis
B. one multh-chassis license using multiple MAC addresses
C. one advanced feature license for the network
D. one premier feature license for the network
E. one site license per ERS 8600
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 Where is the rate-limit feature of the Converged Campus architecture limited?
A. uplink ports on the core switches
B. access ports on the edge switches
C. inter Switch Trunk ports on the core switches
D. uplink ports on the edge switches
Answer: B

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NO.5 Consider the following deployment requirements:
Support 40 100 Mtv s VoIP telephones, each with a power requirement of 6 Watt
Support 40 directly connected 1000 Mtv s Ethernet workstations with UTP cable
Support four 1Gb/s Ethernet uplinks to the core switch using mulitiode fiber
Which configuration is the minimum hardware required for an Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS)
8306
chassis that will support the above requirements?
A. two 8348TX-PWR
one 8393SF
B. one 8348GTX
one 8348TX-PWR
one 8393SF
C. one 8348GTX
one 8348TX-PWR
one 8308XL
one 8393SF
D. two 8348TX-PWR
one 8308XX
one 8393SF
Answer: B

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NO.6 A technician wants to use the New Unit Quick Configuration feature to add new units to
a stack of
Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 5000 switch without resetting it. As well as enabling the
feature, what else
must be done to use the New Unit Quick Configuration feature?
A. Save a template on the base unit
B. Save a template on the backup unit
C. Insert a new switch in the stack
D. Apply the feature license
Answer: A

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NO.7 How many Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 4500 Switches can be connected in a
single stack?
A. 4
B. 8
C.9
D. 10
E. 12
Answer: B

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NO.8 What is the front panel port configuration the Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 2550TPWR?
A. 48 10/100BaesT ports(PoE on 48 pots)
Two combo 10/100/1000BaseT or SFP port
B. 48 10/100BaesT ports(PoE on 24 pots)
Two combo 10/100/1000BaseT or SFP port
C. 50 10/100BaesT ports(PoE on 25 pots)
Two combo 10/100/1000BaseT or SFP port
D. 50 10/100BaesT ports(PoE on 50 pots)
Two combo 10/100/1000BaseT or SFP port
Answer: B

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NO.9 As stated in RFC 2338, ( Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol) VRRP management
problems can occur
if the address used by the management station is used incorrectly. Which two statements
describe how to
avoid management problems? (Choose two)
A. A VRRP interface MUST accept packets addressed to the IP address(es) associated with
the virtual
router if it is not the IP address owner(priority = 255)
B. A VRRP interface MUST NOT accept packets addressed to the IP address(es) associated
with the
virtual router if it is the IP address owner(priority = 255)
C. A VRRP interface MUST NOT accept packets addressed to the IP address(es) associated
with the
virtual router if it is not the IP address owner(priority = 255)
D. A VRRP interface MUST accept packets addressed to the IP address(es) associated with
the virtual
router if it is the IP address owner(priority = 255)
Answer: A,D

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NO.10 A technician is configuring Split Multi Link Trunking (SMLT) for an Ethernet Routing
Switch (ERS) 8600
switch cluster. To ensure the fastest possible recovery time, which feature should be
avoided?
A. VLACP
B. MLT
C. 802.3ad
D. SLPP
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 7003-1
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Communication Server 1000 for Avaya Aura Implementation Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 65 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 A technician on a Communication Server 1000E SA Rls. 7x cannot get a second media Gateway to
register with the Call Server. The call server and Media Gateway 1 sit in the same 19 inch rack while
Media Gateway 2 is in another building and connected via the computer IP network Media Gateway 2 can
ping the Call Server but cannot register. The network is suspected of having a firewall or port blocking
issue.
Which diagnostic tool will help to isolate and identify a firewall or port blocking issue between the call
server and Media Gateway 2?
A. Gryphon Tool
B. Packet Capture Tool
C. Linux PPP Tool
D. Linux Modem Configuration Tool
Answer: B

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NO.2 A technician is installing the Linux Base Operating System software on the CPDC server for the Avaya
Aura system and steps away while the software is loading. When the technician returns, he verifies that
the Linux base installation is complete and successfully installed.
What status can the technician verify to ensure the installation is successful?
A. There is no visible indication available.
B. The Linux server reboots and the FQDN login prompt appears.
C. The status of Linux Hardening items is displayed and the system reboots.
D. The Linux server reboots and the Linux Status Completion screen appears.
Answer: B

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NO.3 A customer has a Communication Server (CS) 1000E Rls. 7 x system with a System Manager as the
primary Security Server that has been designated as a Deployment Server. The application file (.nai) has
been uploaded to the deployment manager library. The customer has added an element to the security
domain and wants to deploy software applications to the element.
With respect to deployment services, which statement is false?
A. Deployment Manager has logicto prevent applications beingdeployed on unsupported hardware
platform.
B. MAS application has its own separate .nai file.
C. IM & Presence application has its own separate .nai file.
D. MAS can be deployed on the same server as Session Manager.
Answer: D

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NO.4 You are installing a new Communication Server 1000E (CS 1000E) SA release 7x system for your
customer. They have asked you to implement the corporate Directory Feature during the installation.
A. SFTP must be disabled in LD 117.
B. Valid telephony accounts must already exist in Subscriber Manager.
C. The CS 1000E Call Server must be joined to security domain.
D. Centralized authentication must be disabled.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Refer to the exhibit.
A Communication Server 1000E Rls. 7 x customer is adding a new Human Resources department with
eight IP telephone users. The customer has asked for the telephones to be programmed with consecutive
Directory numbers (DNs) from their DID range (2000-2099).
Which numbers sequence is available to meet the customer ¯ s r equi r e ment s?
A. 2001-2008
B. 2010-2017
C. 2050-5057
D. 5091-2098
Answer: D

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NO.6 A customer has deployed a Communication Server 100 Rls. 7x system at their site. The technician has
been asked to add the Call pickup feature to the 100 IP telephone in the sales department.
The customer wants to be sure active calls not lost when the changes are made.
Which Phones Configuration feature can be enabled that will ensure changes to the telephone are not
transmitted to the call server until the telephone are busy.?
A. Bulk change
B. Courtesy change
C. Group change
D. Template change
Answer: B

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NO.7 A customer with a Communication Server (CS) 1000E at Rls. 5.5 with two IPMG is upgrading the
system to CS 1000E SA release 7 x. The second media gateway includes a media Gateway Controller
card with one high density DSP daughter board.
How many voice channels does this configuration provide?
A. 32
B. 64
C. 96
D. 128
Answer: D

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NO.8 A customer wants to build a new Ip node on their Communication Server (CS) 1000E system with three
Signaling Servers. This node will support virtual trunks, IP media services, TPS and personnel directories.
A technician logs into Elements manager to complete the configuration, after creating and saving the
node configuration, the transfer now option chosen, then the servers are selected, the start sync is
selected followed by restart application.
What is expected outcome from the system?
A. The node file will be transferred from Signaling Servers to the call servers, and INI files will be
transferred from the call server to the selected servers.
B. The node file will be transferred from Call Servers to the Signaling servers, and the INI files will be
transferred from the Call Servers to the selected servers.
C. The node file will be transferred from Signaling Servers to the Call Server, and the INI files will be
transferred from Call Servers to the Signaling servers.
D. The node will be transferred from Element manager to the call server, and INI files will be transferred
from Element manager to CallServer.
Answer: B

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NO.9 A technician deployed a Communication Server 1000E with dual homing feature configured. Both the T
and 2T ports are connected on the media Gateway Controller (MGC) one connection is active to avoid
network loops.
Which two statements are true, if the connection to the active port on the MGC is host?
(Choose two)
A. The MGC will issue a link down error.
B. The MGC will switch to the active pert.
C. The MGC and CPPM will have no loss of service.
D. The MGC will switch to the active port after 12 seconds.
Answer: B,C

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NO.10 A customer wants to deploy an Avaya Server (CS) 1000 Rls. 7x system in Avaya Aura solution.
They plan to have the system support 50,000 users.
Which system type will meet the customer ¯ s needs?
A. CS 1000E Co-Resident Call Server and Signaling Server
B. CS 1000E Standard Availability (SA)
C. CS 1000E High Availability (HA)
D. CS 1000E High Scalability (HS)
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 6102
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Virtual Services Platform 9000 Implementation Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 67 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Flight Recorder can be used on the Virtual Services Platform (VSP) 9000 to help identify
problems. When can a Flight Recorder snapshot be taken?
A. When the VSP has to be booted into the diagnostic mode
B. Only after a warning message is logged
C. Anytime
D. Every hour
Answer: C

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NO.2 In the current business environment everyone is being asked to do more with fewer physical
resources. Using visualization allows the Virtual Services Platform (VSP) 9000 to initiate the services
provided.By using VRF-Lite, what does the VSP 9000 eliminate the need for?
A. SMLT
B. RSMLT
C. Non-overlapping addresses
D. Multiple physical router
Answer: D

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NO.3 A Virtual Services Platform (VSP) 9000 chassis has the following connections:
Four 10GBaseER core connections in ports 3/4 , 3/8, 4/4, 4/8 (9024XL cards)
40 Copper 100BaseT connections for server aggregation (9048GT card)
How many Switch Fabric (SF) modules need to be installed in the roar of the chassis to ensure that
all of the IO cards operate at full performance, even if a single SF modules fails (n + 1 SF
redundancy)?
A. Install three SFs in St modules 1, 2, 4.
B. Install four SFs in SF modules 1, 2, 3, 4.
C. Install five SFs in SF modules 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.
D. Install six SFs in SF modules 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6.
Answer: D

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NO.4 A Virtual Services Platform (VSP) 9000 chassis will need to terminate the following
connections:
four 10GbE: 10GBaseER core connections in a redundant DMLT configuration 80 GbE
1000BaseLX single uplink connections to the edge stackable switches two Copper 1000BaseT
connections to a couple of directly attached IDS appliances
The 10GbE core connections must ensure non-blocking performance.
Which hardware configuration is the most cost effective and meets the above requirements?
A. Install two 9024XL cards, two 9048GB cards, one 9048GB card.
B. Install two 9024XL cards, two 9048GB cards.
C. Install two 9024XL cards, one 9048GB card, one 9048GT card.
D. Install three 9024XL cards.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Simple Loop Prevention Protocol (SLPP) provides active protection against layer 2 network
loops on a per-VLAN basis. For the SLPP Tx process, the network administrator decides on which
VLANs to enable SLPP. The hello packets are then replicated out all ports that are members of
the SLPP-enabled VLAN. Given the following information:
A = InterSwitch Trunk (IST)
B = Split MultiLink Trunk (SMLT)
#1 VSP 9000
#2 VSP 9000
#3 ERS 4500
When setting up the SLPP Rx process, which configuration role is setup on VSP #1
A. The VSP #1 Rx process is enabled on all VLANs to monitor for the VSP #3 SLPP packets.
B. The VSP # 1 Rx process is enabled on port 3/1 and the IST ports to monitor for the VSP #2
SLPP packets.
C. The VSP #1 Rx process is enabled on all SMLT VLANs to monitor for the VSP #2 SLPP
packets.
D. The VSP #1 Rx process is enabled on port 3/1 to monitor for the VSP #2 SLPP packets.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which statement about the local router MAC addresses on RSMLT aggregation switches
(cluster)
is true?
A. On a RSMLT aggregation switch pair, local router MAC addresses are exchanged, and only
used in case of switch failure.
B. On a RSMLT aggregation switch pair, local router MAC addresses are exchanged, and used for
data forwarding.
C. On a RSMLT aggregation switch pair, local virtual MAC addresses is exchanged, and used for
data forwarding.
D. RSMLT aggregation switches are not exchanging local router MAC addresses, but are using
the IP destination address to forward traffic.
Answer: B

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NO.7 A technician has enabled VLACP on the IST connection, and wants, to verify that is operating
properly. When using the show vlacp interface command, what is the timeout value for the IST
connection?
A. short
B. 3,000
C. 500
D. slow
E. long
Answer: E

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NO.8 A campus network requirement is to introduce Virtual Routing and Forwarding (VRF) in the
existing Virtual Services Platform (VSP) 9000 core. The technician needs to configure VRF on the VSP
9000. Which statement represents the proper order for configuring a new VRF?
A. Create a new VLAN, add an IP address, create a VRF, and move the VLAN to the new VRF.
B. Create a VRF, add an IP address, create a new VLAN, and move the VLAN to the new VRF.
C. Create a VRF, create a new VLAN, add an IP address, and move the VLAN to the new VRF.
D. Create VRF, create a new VLAN, move the VLAN to the new VRF, and add an IP address.
Answer: D

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NO.9 The Chassis Area Network (CAN) uses the SERDES to connect which modules in the Virtual
Services Platform (VSP) 9000?
A. Switch Fabric cards and I/O cards
B. CP curds and Switch Fabric cards
C. CP cards and Switch Fabrics in slots 1 & 4
D. All 10 I/O cards, six SF cards and two CP cards
E. CP cards and all I/O cards
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which three are secure protocols that Virtual Services Platform (VSP) 9000 supports? (Choose
three)
A. SNMPv3
B. HTTPS
C. FTP
D. SNMPv2
E. SSH
Answer: A,B,E

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Exam Code: 3107
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Session Border Controller Enterprise Implementation and Maintenance Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 65 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 The site survey gathers what kind of information?
A. Configuration, topology, IP addresses
B. Network bandwidth test results
C. Customer readiness data
D. Server models
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which entity can also function as the Personal Profile Manager (PPM) for a Remote worker
cluster?
A. System Platform
B. Session Manager
C. Communication Manager
D. System Manager
Answer: B

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NO.3 Where do you implement the restriction that equipment can make calls only during a defined
period of the day?
A. Routing Profile
B. Domain Polity Administration
C. Topology Hiding Profile
D. Signaling Interface
Answer: B

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NO.4 How many networks are subnets are required to commission the SBC and implement SIP
trunking
on an SBC located in the DMZ?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: D

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NO.5 When installing either configuration on the same hardware, which statement describes the
relationship between the standalone SBC and the SBC + EMS (“all-in-one”)?
A. The standalone SBC software is the same as the SBC + EMS (“all-in-one”) software.
B. The standalone SBC and the SBC + EMS (“all-in-one”) must be controlled by the same EMS.
C. The standalone SBC and the SBC + EMS (“all-in-one”) are identical, regardless of hardware
platform.
D. The standalone SBC requires a different EMS from the SBC + EMS (“all-in-one”).
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which pair of elements are configured in a Server Profile?
A. The IP address, the transport protocols
B. The QoS and auto-negotiation settings
C. The Time of Day rules and server FQDN
D. The default gateway and NTP IP addresses
Answer: A

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NO.7 If the Remote Worker cluster is using a Real Server IP and Real Server Port, over which
protocols
are these registration requests routed?
A. HTTP/HTTPS
B. LDAP/PPM
C. FTP/SFTP
D. RTP/SFTP
Answer: A

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NO.8 What do Media Interfaces define?
A. The IP addresses and ports for media
B. The IP addresses and URIs
C. The RTP and TCP ports for media
D. The TLS and RTP ports for media
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 132-S-900-7
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya IP Telephony Design Elective Exam)
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Total Q&A: 77 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 You are developing IP Telephony bandwidth requirements for WAN traffic between two S87xx
sites. The client estimates that simultaneous non-IP Telephony traffic will occupy 1.5 Mbps. In
addition, they estimate that using G.729, 55 simultaneous IP calls need to be provided access to the
WAN link.
What estimated bandwidth will the IP Telephony traffic add to the WAN traffic?
A. 1.5 Mbps
B. 275 Kbps
C. 1650 Kbps
D. 4675 Kbps
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which two recommendations of a network assessment allow Avaya IP phones to boot up
properly with dynamic addressing? (Choose two.)
A. DHCP Site Specific Option 167 being set up correctly
B. DHCP Site Specific Option 176 being set up correctly
C. using Fast Spanning Tree Protocol (FSTP) at the port level
D. turning off Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) at the switch level
Answer: B,C

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NO.3 The customer plans to add remote IP users when they implement VoIP on their network.
What information about the customer's data network do you need to know to verify that remote
users can be supported? (Choose three.)
A. codec administration
B. network region for each remote user
C. applications the remote user will be using
D. bandwidth the remote user will have access to
E. the average round trip between the VPN users and the voice network
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.4 Your client is planning to implement IP Telephony on their recently installed S8500. y will have
local IP sets and IP connected remote users (IP Softphone). In addition, they need connectivity to a
limited-bandwidth WAN between headquarters and their manufacturing plant. The client is
interested in setting up network regions.
What are three reasons to consider network regions in your overall design? (Choose three.)
A. to associate parameters such as codecs and locations to groups of IP endpoints
B. to provide IP endpoints certain mandatory use of resources that belong in the same region as the
endpoint
C. to provide IP endpoints certain preference to use resources that belong in the same region as the
endpoint
D. to associate IP endpoints with a type of signaling resource (CLANS) to load balance registration
among the CLANS in multiple regions
E. to associate IP endpoints with a type of signaling resource (CLANS) to load balance registration
among the CLANS in the same region
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.5 A client is implementing an S87xx Media Server with several G650 Media Gateways. y are
concerned with overheating in the equipment room, especially in the equipment power units.
Which two conditions cause a G650 power supply to initiate an emergency shutdown? (Choose two.)
A. overvoltage
B. overheating
C. undervoltage
D. high humidity
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 Within an S8500 Server, 25 IP telephony endpoints are simultaneously connected to 10 digital
sets, 10 IP sets, and 5 CO trunks.
How many DSPs are in use if G.711 is incorporated?
A. 15
B. 25
C. 30
D. 50
Answer: A

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NO.7 An Avaya customer with a large contact center is IP enabling their S87xx and will allow 25
users to work from home via IP Agent in the Telecommuter mode.
What is the minimum hardware required in the S87xx to provide this application?
A. one CLAN board only
B. one Media Processor board only
C. one CLAN and one Media Processor board
D. no hardware is required, only software.
Answer: A

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NO.8 A customer has two sites connected over a 512k serial WAN link. There are 40 employees at
the main site and 20 employees at the remote site. Since the server bank and all trunks terminate at
the main location, the customer has concerns about the bandwidth over the WAN link. They
request a network assessment.
Which two design considerations are pertinent to the bandwidth on the WAN link? (Choose two.)
A. VLAN capable Ethernet switch
B. telecommuters using IP Softphone to access network resources
C. number of voice calls going through the WAN link during peak time
D. graphic-based programs used on the network between the two sites
Answer: C,D

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NO.9 Which of the following does a typical Cisco design include?
A. Right to Use for Call Manager
B. Right to Use for Growth
C. Right to Use for Phones
D. Right to Use for Redundancy
Answer: C

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NO.10 What needs to be considered at an Enterprise Survivability Server (ESS) location when
implementing an agent recording solution?
A. H.323 trunks
B. locally sourced announcements
C. Application Enablement Services (AES)
D. Separation of Bearer and Signaling (SBS)
Answer: C

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Exam Code: SABE501V3.0
Exam Name: Business-Objects (Business Objects Certified Professional - Business Objects Enterprise XI 3.0 - Update.)
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Total Q&A: 72 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 A user belongs to both Group 1 and Group 2 and you want that user to see a specific folder. What
folder security settings would you use to enable the user to view the folder?
A.Set the view right to granted for Group 1 and not specified for Group 2 and also not specified for the
Everyone group
B.Set the view right to denied for Group 1 and granted for Group 2
C.Set the view right to not specified for Group 1 and not specified for Group 2
D.Set the view right to granted for Group 1 and denied for Group 2
E.Create a custom access level and grant for Group 1 and deny for Group 2
Answer:A

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NO.2 In which two locations could you configure the port numbers for the local Central Management Server
(CMS)? (Choose two.)
A.In the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), under the Startup tab for the Server Intelligence Agent
(SIA)
B.In the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), under the Configuration tab for the CMS
C.In the Central Management Console (CMC), under the Server settings for the CMS
D.In the Central Management Console (CMC), under Server Intelligence Agent (SIA) settings
Answer:A C

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NO.3 Which three parameters can you specify in the command line for wdeploy? (Choose three.)
A.Web Server Type
B.CMS Administrator Username
C.Deployment Parameters
D.Deployment Actions
Answer:A C D

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NO.4 Which replication object would you schedule?
A.Replication Job
B.Replication List
C.Replication Connection
D.Replication Package
Answer:A

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NO.5 Which servers should you examine if you are unable to schedule a Web Intelligence document?
(Choose three.)
A.Web Intelligence Processing Server
B.Connection Server
C.Adaptive Job Server
D.Output File Repository Server (FRS)
Answer:A C D

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NO.6 Four users in the Human Resources department and six users in the Finance department need to edit
existing Web Intelligence documents. How would you set-up a secure folder structure for the different
departments so that each group of users can edit existing Web Intelligence documents?
A.Modify advanced rights on all groups.
B.Apply a predefined access level to all folders.
C.Create a custom access level and apply it to all folders.
D.Modify advanced rights on a top level folder.
Answer:C

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NO.7 What do you see when you view a Crystal Report instance that has both saved data and two
successful instances?
A.The latest data from the database
B.The oldest data from the database
C.The oldest successful instance
D.The newest successful instance
Answer:D

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NO.8 Which directory is the bootstrap file saved in by default on the Windows platform?
A.Web Services
B.Logging
C.FileStore
D.Win32_x86
Answer:D

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NO.9 Which statement is true of a single Replication Job?
A.Has two or more origin sites and no destination sites
B.Has only one origin site and only one destination site
C.Has one or more origin sites and only one destination site
D.Has one or more origin sites and possibly many destination sites
Answer:B

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NO.10 Which three are benefits to the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA)? (Choose three.)
A.Security
B.Administrative accessibility
C.Email notification
D.Reliability
Answer:A B D

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NO.11 Which type of file does the replication process use to transfer content?
A.BIAR
B.REP
C.Binary
D.BOMain
Answer:A

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NO.12 How do you change the system database properties for the Central Management Server (CMS)?
A.Select the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA) in the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), which is
pointing to the remote CMS, stop the SIA and go to the Configuration tab.
B.Select the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA) in the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), which is
pointing to the local CMS, stop the SIA and go to the Startup tab.
C.Select the CMS in the Central Management Console (CMC), stop the service and go to the
Configuration tab.
D.Select the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA), which is pointing to the local CMS, stop the service and go
to the Configuration tab.
Answer:D

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NO.13 What action would the Deployment Diagnostic Tool take when an InfoObject exists in the Central
Management Server (CMS) system database, but the corresponding file cannot be found in the File
Repository Server (FRS)?
A.Remove the InfoObject from the Central Management Server (CMS) system database, unless
otherwise specified.
B.Create a blank report as a placeholder.
C.Notify the user to republish the object.
D.Reassign the InfoObject to a new file.
Answer:A

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NO.14 How do you set-up a configuration template for a Web Intelligence Processing Server?
A.Go to the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), then go to the Server Template area and click on Add
New Template.
B.Go to the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), then go to properties of the specific server and click
on Add New Template.
C.Go to the Central Management Console (CMC), then go to the Server Template area and click on Set
Configuration Template.
D.Go to the Central Management Console (CMC), then go to properties of the specific server and click on
Set Configuration Template.
Answer:D

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NO.15 What is the difference between one-way replication and two-way replication?
A.In one-way replication, content only travels from Origin site to Destination site. In two-way replication,
content only travels from Destination site to Origin site.
B.In one-way replication, content only travels from Destination site to Origin site. In two-way replication,
content can travel from Origin site to Destination site, or from Destination site to Origin site.
C.In one-way replication, content only travels from Origin site to Destination site. In two-way replication,
content also travels only from Origin site to Destination site but this operation can happen more than once.
D.In one-way replication, content only travels from Origin site to Destination site. In two-way replication,
content also travels from Origin site to Destination site but this operation can happen more than once.
Answer:D

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NO.16 Which three application servers can you deploy Web Archive (WAR) files to using wdeploy? (Choose
three.)
A.Oracle Containers for J2EE
B.SAP Netweaver
C.JRun
D.Sun Java Application Server
Answer:A B D

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NO.17 Where do you configure the Login action for Desktop Intelligence users in a 3-tier mode?
A.Under Settings in the Desktop Intelligence client
B.In the Central Management Console (CMC), under the Audit Events of the Desktop Intelligence Cache
Server
C.In the Central Management Console (CMC), under the Audit Events of the Central Management Server
(CMS)
D.In the Central Management Console (CMC), under the Audit Events of the Desktop Intelligence
application
Answer:C

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NO.18 You are migrating content into a new system. Which task must you perform to maintain the system
integrity (CUID)?
A.Define the LDAP configuration
B.List the groups to be migrated
C.Define custom security settings
D.List the active content folders
Answer:A

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NO.19 Which web language was used to develop InfoView?
A.Perl
B.Java
C.PHP
D.C++
Answer:B

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NO.20 Where are the properties for the Event Server stored?
A.In the boot.ini file on the machine where the Event Server is running
B.In the Central Management Server (CMS) system database
C.In the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA) bootstrap file
D.In the Event Server service properties
Answer:B

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Exam Code: 60-DSFA680
Exam Name: Altiris (Altiris Deployment Solution Foundation 6.8)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 99 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which Deployment Console method lets you work with software virtualization layers?
A. using a Deployment job
B. selecting Tools > Software Virtualization
C. right-clicking on a computer and selecting Software Virtualization > Manage Layers
Answer: A

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NO.2 AClient has been installed on your Windows XP managed computers.
Which three methods can be used to change the settings AClient is currently using? (Choose three.)
A. from the Deployment Console, right-click on the computer and select Change Agent Settings
B. from the Deployment Console, select Tools > AClient > Configurations
C. from the managed computer, select Start > All Programs > Altiris > AClient > Configuration
D. from the managed computer, double-click the AClient icon located in the system tray and select
Properties
E. from the Deployment Console, double-click on a computer and edit the client properties
F. use the Deployment Console to reinstall AClient with the desired settings
Answer: ADF

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NO.3 Deployment Solution's Simple Install Helper will check for and install which required third-party
software? (Choose two.)
A. Java
B. DirectX
C. ActiveX
D. .NET framework
E. Pre-boot automation operating systems
F. SQL
Answer: DF

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NO.4 Deployment Agents (such as AClient) can be installed on remote computers using the Remote Agent
Installer, but only when the remote computers are running which four operating systems? (Choose four.)
A. Windows 2000
B. Windows 95
C. Windows NT
D. Windows XP
E. Windows 2003
F. Linux
G. Windows 98
Answer: ACDE

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NO.5 AClient (on a managed computer) has been configured to use a multicast packet to locate the
Deployment Server.
Which statement is now true?
A. moving this computer to a different Deployment System requires the AClient agent be reconfigured
B. images can be sent using unicast packets or multicast packets
C. this setting configures images to be sent to the computer using multicasting technology
D. the Deployment Server must be configured to obtain its IP address from a DHCP server
Answer: B

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NO.6 When capturing a computer's personality, the application settings used for this process are located in
which file type?
A. .INI
B. .A2I
C. .ASI
D. .PBT
Answer: B

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NO.7 You have deployed a hardware independent image to an ACPI Uniprocessor computer and now the
computer will not start.
What is the probable cause?
A. the wrong hardware abstraction layer (HAL) was deployed
B. Sysprep was not run on the source computer
C. the ACPI Uniprocessor computer does not support hardware independent images
D. a clean Windows installation was not performed on the source computer before creating the hardware
independent image.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which Altiris utility creates the necessary media to run the Initial Deployment job from a CD?
A. ImageExplorer
B. RapiDeploy
C. PXE Configuration Utility
D. Initial Deployment Configuration Utility
E. Boot Disk Creator
Answer: E

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NO.9 Which required symbol identifies the opening and closing of a Deployment token?
A. %
B. #
C. $
D. *
Answer: A

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NO.10 How does a Deployment Solution job let you work with software virtualization layers? (Choose two.)
A. layers can be imported to a managed computer
B. layers can be created
C. the state of a layer can be managed (activated, deactivated, and so forth)
D. the content of a layer can be modified
Answer: AC

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NO.11 AClient has not been password protected.
Which three tasks can be performed after right-clicking on the AClient icon from a managed computer?
(Choose three.)
A. initiate Microsoft's Sysprep Utility in preparation for imaging
B. view the AClient log file when log files have been enabled
C. change the name of the managed computer as it appears in the Deployment Console
D. change the NetBIOS name of the managed computer
E. monitor AClient's communication with the Deployment Server
F. reinstall AClient
G. edit the AClient template file
Answer: BCE

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NO.12 You can use _____ to ensure that your PXE servers are servicing the correct managed computers.
A. IP blocking
B. Conditions
C. MAC filtering
D. NetBIOS name recognition
Answer: C

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NO.13 While imaging computers, Deployment Solution supports the use of UNDI drivers.
Which UNDI driver statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. UNDI drivers are written specifically to work with the Altiris automation process.
B. UNDI drivers must be downloaded and installed from Intel's Web site before they can be used.
C. UNDI drivers let you image computers without obtaining a specific manufacturer's network driver for
each network card.
D. UNDI drivers do not support multicasting of hard disk images across the entire network.
E. UNDI drivers support multicasting of hard disk images across the entire network.
Answer: CD

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NO.14 Which Deployment Solution component stores the main Deployment System program files?
A. Deployment Server
B. Deployment Database
C. Deployment Share
D. Microsoft DHCP Server
E. Deployment PXE Server
F. Deployment Console
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which statement about deploying computer image files is true?
A. The RDeploy switch used to preserve existing partitions is enabled by default.
B. Aborting the deployment process (after imaging as started) corrupts the destination computer's hard
drive.
C. The maximum space required on the destination hard drive is equal to the size of the image file.
D. The imaging process is non-destructive, and adds data to what is already stored on an existing hard
drive partition.
Answer: B

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NO.16 You are using the Deployment Console's New Job Wizard to migrate a computer's personality from
one computer to different computer.
What happens to the names of these two computers during this process?
A. The destination computer is automatically given a new unique name.
B. The source computer is automatically renamed and the destination computer gets the original name of
the source computer.
C. The two computers will end up with identical names, therefore you must rename one of the computers
manually.
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which program lets you edit image files after they have been created?
A. ImgViewer
B. ImageExplorer
C. ImageEditor
D. ImageManager
E. ImgManager
Answer: B

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NO.18 When using the DOS operating system, image files with an .EXE file extension _____?
A. cannot be deployed using a Deployment job
B. must be converted to .IMG before they can be deployed with a Deployment job
C. cannot be converted to .IMG files
D. can be deployed without using additional Altiris imaging software
Answer: D

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NO.19 When using Altiris PXE servers in a Deployment System, which PXE statement is true?
A. Multiple PXE servers can only be installed if a router separates them.
B. If a PXE server is configured to delay its response, it will respond only if no other PXE server responds
immediately.
C. A managed computer only uses the first PXE server it hears from.
D. Configuring multiple PXE servers to respond immediately causes errors on the managed computers.
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which utility removes the security ID (SID) before making an image of a computer?
A. SIDgenerator
B. SetupCapture
C. Sysprep
D. ImageExplorer
E. SIDconfig
Answer: C

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